Economics 2154A/B Study Guide - Aggregate Supply, Classical Economics, Aggregate Demand

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24 Sep 2014

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________: output to increase in the short run, but not in the long run b) an increase in the price level, government budget deficits to increase d) only a and b of the above. 2014 pearson canada inc: in the new classical model, an anticipated policy of a continually increasing money supply. ________ model: anticipated; new keynesian b) unanticipated; new keynesian, anticipated; new classical d) unanticipated; new classical. Figure 27-3: in the new classical model in figure 27-3, an anticipated expansionary monetary policy. 4: in the new classical model in figure 27-3, the long-run effect of an unanticipated monetary expansion ________. 1: in the new classical model in figure 27-3, an anticipated monetary expansion ________. 4: in the new classical model in figure 27-3, the initial impact of an unanticipated monetary contraction ________. 4: in the new classical model in figure 27-3, the long-run effect of an unanticipated monetary contraction ________.

Related Questions

41.Which of the following is a valid statement about the Keynesian and classical models of the macroeconomy?

A. Fiscal policy will affect output in the Keynesian model, but only the price level in the classical model.

B. The economy adapts quickly to demand shocks under the Keynesian model, but not under the classical model.

C. A sharp decrease in the value of a nation's currency will lead to higher price levels in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

D. Increases in autonomous expenditure will increase aggregate demand in the Keynesian model, but not in the classical model.

E. An increase in the productive capacity of an economy will result in greater output in both the Keynesian and classical models.

42. Suppose the government spends $500M on a project that has absolutely no value to the country. Which statement about this project is correct?

A. If taxes were raised $500M to fund this project, the Keynesian model predicts that this will have no net effect on output in the economy.

B. If the government raised the money for this project by printing $500M in bonds and selling them to the Fed, the effect is exactly the same as if they sold the bonds to households.

C. The project will increase aggregate supply because it will increase the total quantity of goods and services supplied in the economy.

D. If the marginal propensity to save in the economy is equal to 0.25, the Keynesian model predicts that this project will result in a $2000M increase in GDP.

E. Under the assumptions of the classical model, the result of this project will be increased in both the price level and equilibrium GDP.

43. A particular economy has a consumption of $400M, a government deficit of $100M, taxes of $250M, and income of $800M. Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If the investment is zero, there is no foreign trade imbalance.

B. If the trade surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

C. If the capital account surplus is $50M, the investment will be equal to $100M.

D. If the trade surplus is $100M, there will be an investment.

E. None of the above statements is necessarily true.

44. Which piece of information would be least useful in trying to predict the effect of a $700M increase in government spending on equilibrium GDP?

A. marginal propensity to save

B. The slope of the aggregate supply curve

C. Whether taxes are raised to pay for the spending increase

D. The current level of structural unemployment

E. Whether the bonds used to finance the spending were sold to households or to the Fed

45.Which of the statements relating to full employment and full capacity is false?

A. At full employment there is no frictional unemployment; at full capacity, there is no structural unemployment.

B. The full-employment level of output is less than the full capacity level of output.

C. At full employment there is no cyclical unemployment; at full capacity, there is no frictional unemployment.

D. A government spending increase will result in increased output and price levels at full employment, but only increased price levels at full capacity.

E. In the long run, an economy that starts at full capacity will move to full employment.

46. What would be the effect of a law requiring that government spending equal tax revenues in each year?

A. Fiscal policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

B. Monetary policy would be completely eliminated as a tool to control the macroeconomy.

C. Fluctuations in GDP would become less severe.

D. The government spending multiplier would be effectively set to 1.0.

E. The marginal propensity to consume would be cut in half.

47.The total value of T-bonds, including T-notes and T-bills, in existence at any point in time, is:

A. The federal government spending deficit.

B. The trade deficit.

C. Less than government spending.

D. Necessarily less than GDP.

E. The national debt.

48. Which of the following would be a valid statement about a government plan to eliminate a trade deficit

A. A decrease in the trade deficit will decrease investment in the country.

B. An effective strategy would be to increase the money supply and increase the value of the national currency.

C. An effective strategy would be to increase interest rates and increase the value of the national currency.

D. This could be achieved through dramatically increasing aggregate supply.

E. The increase in net exports will result in a decrease in aggregate demand.

49. Crowding out has the effect(s) of:

A. Reducing the effectiveness of monetary policy if crowding out occurs in financial markets.

B. Decreasing the value of a nationâs currency if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

C. Increasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and increasing the effectiveness of monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

D. Decreasing the effectiveness of fiscal policy if the crowding out occurs in financial markets and decreasing the effectiveness of both fiscal and monetary policy if the crowding out occurs in product markets.

E. Increasing the price of government bonds if the crowding out occurs in financial markets.

50. Which of the following will make crowding out in credit markets more severe?

A. A steep investment demand curve

B. A global credit market

C. Tax increases

D. A steep supply curve in the loanable funds market

E. None of the above

peachmacaw787

1. Which of the following shifts aggregate demand to the right?
a. Congress reduces purchases of new weapons systems.
b. US exports increase.
c. The price level falls
d. New developments in IT increase the productivity of most manufacturing industries in the US.

2. Suppose the EPA introduces new smog regulation that makes it costlier to produce cars. As a result, aggregate supply falls (primary effect) and firms cut back on production. With less output in the economy available for consumers, consumers bid up the prices of available output. With higher prices, firms choose to produce more (secondary effect).
Which of the following best explains what the net effect on GDP?
a. The two effects should essentially cancel out, with little to no effect on GDP, but the price level clearly rises.
b. It is impossible to say what happens to GDP without being able to compare the magnitudes of the two effects.
c. Real GDP rises as the secondary effect dominates the primary effect.
d. Real GDP falls since the primary effect dominates the secondary effect.

3. A Keynesian economist who observes an output gap would conclude that
a. aggregate demand should be shifted to the right.
b. a policy of deregulation would be better than demand management policy
c. aggregate supply should be shifted to the right
d. All proposed answer options are correct

4. Monetarists believe
a. the Aggregate Supply curve is upward-sloping (but not vertical) over all time frames.
b. the Aggregate Supply curve can be treated as horizontal in the long run (over 10 years
c. the Aggregate Supply curve is vertical only in the very long run (over 20 years).
d. the Aggregate Supply curve can be treated as vertical in the short-to-medium run (1-2 years)

5. Suppose the price of oil increases due to conflict in the Middle East. How will this be illustrated in the AD-AS model?
a. The aggregate demand curve will shift to the left
b. The aggregate supply curve will shift to the left.
c. The aggregate demand curve will shift to the right
d. The aggregate supply curve will shift to the right

6. Assume a Keynesian AS curve. In the short run, when there is a large output gap
a. contractionary demand management policy is likely to be highly inflationary
b. expansionary demand management policy does not cause much inflation.
c. expansionary demand management policy is likely to be highly inflationary
d. the government should use contractionary demand management policy

7. As a result of Bush tax cuts that partially expired in January 2013, the marginal tax rates for some households increased and these households paid higher taxes. Which of the following would be the best description of the tax cut expiration?
a. Rightward shift in AS
b. Rightward shift in AD
c. Leftward shift in AD
d. Leftward shift in AS

8. Suppose that the U.S. government increases income taxes on individuals earning more than $500,000/year and uses the revenue from this tax increase to subsidize the cost of energy for businesses. How will this policy change affect the U.S. economy?
a. The effect on output is ambiguous but price level will decrease for sure
b. The effect on both output and price level is ambiguous.
c. The effect on price level is ambiguous but output will increase for sure
d. The effect on price level is ambiguous but output will decrease for sure

9. If Australia, which imports goods from the United States, went into recession, we would expect that U.S. net exports would
a. rise, making aggregate demand shift right.
b. rise, making aggregate demand shift left
c. fall, making aggregate demand shift left
d. fall, making aggregate demand shift right

10. Suppose that Greece decides to exit the European Union and the Euro Zone, causing a boost in business confidence in European markets. How would you illustrate the primary effect of Greeceâs decision in the AD-AS model for the EU economy?

Note: for this question, assume that Y in the AD-AS model represents output (GDP) of EU member countries without Greece.
a. a shift in the aggregate supply curve to the left and a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left
b. a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the right
c. a shift in the aggregate demand curve to the left
d. movement along the aggregate demand curve to the left

11. The Austrian school of thought believes that demand management policy should not be used because
a. big government prefers deregulation, which shifts aggregate supply
b. the economy is always at full employment
c. shifting AD to the right is likely to cause deflation
d. big government has a bias towards inflationary policy

rosedolphin326

Which of the following statements has been proposed as a benefit of passive policy making?

		Passive policy making utilizes the rational expectations hypothesis.
		Passive policy making allows for making immediate changes in response to an anticipated change in economic performance.
		When using passive policy making there is no tradeoff between price stability and unemployment.
		Passive policy making does not wait for the time lag between recognition of a problem and policy action before engaging in economic policies to stabilize the economy.

1.47 points

QUESTION 6

The idea of policy making taking place in response to a predetermined set of rules is referred to as

		discretionary policy making.
		passive policy making.
		Keynesianism.
		active policy making.

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QUESTION 7

What types of unemployment will still exist when the economy is at the natural rate of unemployment?

		frictional and cyclical unemployment only
		frictional, structural, and cyclical unemployment
		frictional and structural unemployment only
		structural and cyclical unemployment only

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QUESTION 8

The natural rate of unemployment is

		the unemployment rate that exists in long-run equilibrium, after adjustments to all changes have occurred.
		the unemployment rate when there is no structural unemployment.
		the unemployment rate when there is no structural or cyclical unemployment.
		zero.

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QUESTION 9

According to the text, minimum-wage laws cause increases in

		employment possibilities.
		structural unemployment.
		poverty.
		productivity.

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QUESTION 10

During a recession, the overall unemployment rate

		exceeds the natural rate of unemployment.
		falls below the natural rate of unemployment.
		falls rapidly.
		equals the inflation rate.

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QUESTION 11

Cyclical unemployment is

		the unemployment due to the unemployment benefits and welfare programs of the government.
		the unemployment due to union activities and government-imposed restrictions to entry into specific occupations.
		the difference between the actual unemployment rate and the natural rate of unemployment.
		the difference between the unemployment rate when the economy is in a recession and the unemployment rate when the economy is at the peak of an expansion.

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QUESTION 12

Which of the following unemployment rates can be negative?

		the natural unemployment rate
		the seasonal unemployment rate
		the official unemployment rate reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics
		the cyclical unemployment rate

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QUESTION 13

An unexpected increase in aggregate demand typically causes

		the price level to increase but has no effect on the unemployment rate.
		frictional unemployment to increase but structural unemployment to decrease.
		the price level to increase and the unemployment rate to fall.
		the price level to increase and the unemployment rate to increase.

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QUESTION 14

The rate of unemployment below which the rate of inflation tends to rise and above which the rate of inflation tends to fall is known as the

		non-accelerating-inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU).
		contrary rate of unemployment.
		Phillips rate of unemployment.
		menu cost rate of unemployment.

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QUESTION 15

Based on the work of economist A.W. Phillips, economists concluded that

		high inflation rates are associated with low unemployment rates.
		higher rates of inflation are associated with higher rates of unemployment.
		there is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment.
		unemployment can be effectively combated by raising wages.

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QUESTION 16

What happens to the Phillips curve when the expected rate of inflation rises?

		The curve shifts to the right
		The curve shifts to the left
		The Phillips curve is unaffected
		The curve becomes horizontal

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QUESTION 17

The short-run Phillips curve suggests what policy making implications?

		Passive policy making is more effective than active policy making.
		Active policy making does not yield any predictable results.
		Maintaining both the inflation and unemployment rates at low levels is possible if policy makers will rely solely on nondiscretionary policy making.
		Using discretionary policies, it may be possible to achieve just the right unemployment and inflation mix.

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QUESTION 18

We observe the duration of unemployment falling and wage rates rising. It is likely that

		aggregate supply has increased.
		aggregate demand has increased.
		summer has arrived.
		the government has initiated expansionary fiscal policy but the policies haven't taken effect yet.

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QUESTION 19

Policymakers' attempts to use the Phillips curve to reduce the unemployment rate below the natural rate

		will be successful since the Phillips curve shows the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate.
		will be unsuccessful if monetary policy is used since monetary policy leads to higher prices.
		will be successful if monetary policy is used.
		will be unsuccessful since workers' expectations adjust to attempts to reduce unemployment below the natural rate.

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QUESTION 20

Which one of the following would likely reduce the level of structural unemployment?

		strengthening restrictions on who can be licensed to enter certain professions
		increasing the minimum wage to encourage more people to work
		increasing the level of union bargaining power
		limiting unemployment insurance benefits

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QUESTION 21

An unexpected decrease in aggregate demand

		will decrease real GDP, but will not affect the rate and duration of unemployment.
		will decrease the price level.
		will decrease long-run aggregate supply.
		will decrease the average duration of unemployment.

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QUESTION 22

When a person bases her future expectations for the economy on all available current data and her own judgment about future policy effects, this is known as

		rational expectations.
		irrational expectations.
		the policy irrelevance proposition.
		the new classical theory.

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QUESTION 23

According to the rational expectations hypothesis, monetary policy can have real effects on such variables as real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the short run

		when the Federal Reserve's open market committee operates as expected in either buying or selling bonds.
		regardless of whether the policy is anticipated or unanticipated.
		only when the policy is unsystematic and unanticipated.
		only when the policy is anticipated.

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QUESTION 24

Rational expectations theory suggests that short-run stabilization policy

		should not be attempted.
		is best achieved with fiscal policy.
		is best achieved with monetary policy.
		is equally easy to achieve with monetary or fiscal policy.

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QUESTION 25

Proponents of the policy irrelevance proposition believe that, under the assumption of rational expectations, the unemployment rate will

		go down whenever the Fed announces an anticipated fiscal policy change.
		equal the natural rate of unemployment in the long run, regardless of any monetary policy actions.
		always be higher in the long run than the natural rate of employment.
		go up whenever the Fed announces an anticipated monetary policy change.

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QUESTION 26

For the policy irrelevance theorem to hold, people must

		not persistently make the same mistakes in forecasting the future.
		know exactly what the Fed is planning to do.
		know the future perfectly.
		never make mistakes in their forecasts, even when they do not know the future perfectly.

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QUESTION 27

According to the policy irrelevance proposition, the impact of an anticipated expansionary monetary policy will be to

		increase the price level in the long run.
		increase the real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the long run.
		decrease the natural rate of unemployment.
		decrease the price level and the unemployment rate.

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QUESTION 28

One key assumption lying behind the policy irrelevance proposition is that

		prices are "sticky" upward.
		wages are "sticky" downward.
		markets are not purely competitive.
		the rational expectations hypothesis is correct.

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QUESTION 29

According to the real business cycle theory, an increase in an input price, such as oil, will

		increase both real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the price level.
		increase real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but not change the price level.
		decrease both real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the price level.
		decrease real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but increase the price level.

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QUESTION 30

When "stagflation" occurs,

		the economy experiences higher inflation rates and higher unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences lower inflation rates and higher unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences higher inflation rates and lower unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences lower inflation rates and lower unemployment rates at the same time.

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QUESTION 31

When a supply shock is permanent

		only the short-run aggregate supply curve shifts leftward.
		only the long-run aggregate supply curve shifts leftward.
		there are no shifts in either the long-run or short-run aggregate supply curve.
		both the long-run and short-run aggregate supply curves shift leftward.

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QUESTION 32

According to economists who promote sticky-price theories,

		only monetary policy is an effective stabilization policy.
		only fiscal policy is an effective stabilization policy.
		both fiscal and monetary policy can be effective stabilization policies.
		neither fiscal nor monetary policy is an effective stabilization policy.

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QUESTION 33

Some economists suggest that because of the costs of negotiating contracts, printing price lists, etc., it is costly for firms to change prices in response to demand changes. This hypothesis is known as the

		menu cost theory.
		Phillips theory.
		Freidman theory.
		sticky wage theory.

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QUESTION 34

The menu cost theory suggests that

		wages and prices move freely and quickly.
		there will be no unemployment.
		firms find frequent price changes to be costly.
		the economy is characterized only by perfect competition.

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QUESTION 35

In new Keynesian theory, the pattern of inflation exhibited by an economy with growing aggregate demand known as inflation dynamics is

		initially speedy upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by lower inflation in the future.
		initially sluggish downward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by lower inflation in the future.
		initially sluggish upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by higher inflation in the future.
		initially speedy upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by higher inflation in the future.

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QUESTION 36

Menu costs are a possible reason for

		swings in the labor force participation rate.
		sticky product prices.
		aggregate supply shocks.
		low levels of consumer confidence in response to aggregate supply shocks.

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QUESTION 37

New Keynesians hypothesize that

		the relationship between inflation and unemployment is exploitable in the short run.
		fluctuations in output are largely caused by supply shocks.
		the relationship between inflation and unemployment is exploitable in the long run.
		there is no relationship between inflation and unemployment.

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QUESTION 38

Economists Milton Friedman and E.S. Phelps suggested that the apparent trade-off suggested by the Phillips curve could not be exploited by policy makers, because

		unemployment levels and the inflation rate have a negative (inverse) relationship.
		unemployment levels and the inflation rate have a clear, positive relationship.
		economic participants routinely incorporate changes in the inflation rate into their expectations.
		economic participants are not rational, and therefore act unpredictably to any policy change.

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QUESTION 39

When it comes to active policy making most economists agree that

		it is unlikely that active policy making will have any long term effects on the economy.
		it will lead to long term shocks in the system.
		it is likely that active policy making will have long term effects on the economy.
		active policy making should be used over passive policy making.

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QUESTION 40

If population growth occurs while jobs are difficult to obtain or labor force participation does not increase,

		economic growth will be robust because any population gain is a plus.
		per capita GDP is likely to increase sharply.
		there may be little or no increase in a nation's labor resources.
		a nation's labor resources will still continue to increase in both quality and quantity.

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QUESTION 41

If the level of aggregate real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) remains constant, a reduction in the population

		indirectly reduces per capita real GDP.
		directly reduces per capita real GDP.
		directly increases per capita real GDP.
		has no effect on real per capita real GDP.

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QUESTION 42

Suppose a nation's real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grows at a constant rate of 5 percent per year while its population grows 2 percent annually. Given this information, this nation's annual rate of per capita real GDP growth is approximately equal to

		2 percent
		1 percent
		5 percent
		3 percent

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QUESTION 43

In the determination of economic growth, political freedom

		is equally as important as economic freedom.
		appears to be less important than economic freedom.
		contributes little to job growth.
		is more important than economic freedom.

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QUESTION 44

Political freedom can sometimes moderately reduce economic growth because

		special interest groups may gain at the expense of the overall economy.
		campaign contributions rob the economy of investment.
		most jobs are in unions that are politically connected.
		none of the above.

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QUESTION 45

Economic freedom is

		the right to own private property and to exchange goods with minimal government interference.
		present as long as private individuals own businesses.
		the amount of control that the government has in a market.
		the right to vote in an election for a political leader.

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QUESTION 46

The right to openly support and democratically select national leaders is

		population freedom.
		political freedom.
		economic freedom.
		capital freedom.

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QUESTION 47

Economic growth is measured by

		the annual percentage change in nominal GDP.
		the annual percentage change in per capita real GDP.
		the annual percentage change in per capita nominal GDP.
		the annual percentage change in the unemployment rate.

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QUESTION 48

Laws that make it difficult to start a new business lead to a

		laissez-faire.
		low rate of economic growth.
		high rate of economic growth.
		more political freedom.

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QUESTION 49

Dead capital is

		any capital resource that lacks clear title of ownership.
		machinery that requires constant maintenance.
		machinery that fails to operate properly.
		a capital resource that depreciates rapidly.

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QUESTION 50

The significance of dead capital is that

		it is being removed from its most efficient use.
		it is difficult to allocate to its most efficient use.
		its fixed cost is too high.
		it replaces too many workers.

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QUESTION 51

Developing countries are damaged by dead capital because

		it replaces too many workers, creating unemployment.
		resulting inefficiencies greatly reduce the rate of return on investment.
		it must be sold as scrap.
		none of the above.

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QUESTION 52

The role that dead capital plays in a country's economic growth is that

		growth neither increases nor is impaired by dead capital.
		growth increases because the dead capital is replaced with more technologically efficient capital.
		growth increases since the firms using the dead capital are using it for free.
		growth is impaired since the capital cannot be allocated to its most efficient use.

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QUESTION 53

When government inefficiencies exist,

		a country tends to grow at a faster rate.
		economic growth is not influenced.
		dead capital is usually not a problem.
		a country tends to grow at a slower rate.

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QUESTION 54

The acquisition of more than 10 percent of the shares of ownership in a company in another nation is called

		gross private international investment.
		majority investment.
		foreign direct investment.
		portfolio investment.

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QUESTION 55

Most international investment finance today comes from

		portfolio and foreign direct investment.
		the sale of antiques.
		government financing.
		tax collections.

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QUESTION 56

Portfolio investment means buying

		livestock.
		less than 10 percent ownership in a foreign company.
		a life insurance policy when traveling abroad.
		more than 50 percent ownership in a foreign company.

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QUESTION 57

The primary motivation for private foreign investment in developing nations is

		to eradicate poverty.
		to improve the standard of living for workers.
		the potential for high rates of return.
		to do research in countries with fewer social regulations.

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QUESTION 58

An international financial crisis is most often caused by

		a nation's central bank lowering domestic interest rates.
		a drop in the value of the U.S. dollar.
		foreign investments and loans being withdrawn from a nation.
		a government refusing to pay its dues to the United Nations.

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QUESTION 59

Adverse selection is a barrier to financing global growth because

		there is the possibility that the funds are used for riskier behavior than the lender agreed to.
		firms sometimes have trouble determining whether they need funds or not.
		if investors have trouble identifying high-risk firms they may be unwilling to lend funds to creditworthy firms.
		of the differences between financing using loans, portfolio investment and foreign direct investment.

1.47 points

QUESTION 60

Moral hazard is a barrier to financing global growth because

		there is the possibility that the funds are used for riskier behavior than the lender agreed to.
		if investors have trouble identifying high-risk firms they may be unwilling to give money to creditworthy firms.
		firms sometimes have trouble determining whether they need funds or not.
		of the differences between financing using loans, portfolio investment and foreign direct investment.

1.47 points

QUESTION 61

Two types of asymmetric information that create problems for international investment are

		adverse hazard and moral selection.
		adverse hazard and moral hazard.
		adverse selection and moral selection.
		adverse selection and moral hazard.

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QUESTION 62

The multinational agency that specializes in making loans to developing nations in an effort to promote long-term development and growth is the

		International Monetary Fund.
		United Nations Development Program.
		World Trade Organization.
		World Bank.

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QUESTION 63

The multinational organization that aims to promote world economic growth by fostering financial stability is the

		World Bank.
		United Nations.
		International Monetary Fund.
		World Trade Organization.

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QUESTION 64

A nation's account with the IMF is called its

		deposit surplus.
		capital account.
		current account.
		quota subscription.

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QUESTION 65

The international unit of accounting used by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is called

		the Eurodollar.
		the IMF dollar.
		the quota subscription.
		special drawing rights.

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QUESTION 66

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was created to achieve each of the following goals EXCEPT

		to supervise exchange-rate practices of member countries.
		to help finance economic development in poor countries.
		to encourage convertibility of member countries' currencies.
		to lend funds to countries having difficulties meeting their international payment obligations.

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QUESTION 67

The World Bank specializes in making loans to promote

		short-term assistance when a nation experiences a financial crisis.
		financial stability.
		so-called stand-by arrangements and credits.
		long-term development and growth.

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QUESTION 68

The International Monetary Fund

		is the bank that causes international financial crisis when the reserves are too high.
		is a central bank like the Federal Reserve System.
		is a multinational organization that aims to promote world economic growth through more financial stability.
		is a multinational agency that specializes in making loans to promote long-term development and growth in developing countries.

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Economics 2154A/B Study Guide - Aggregate Supply, Classical Economics, Aggregate Demand

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