marcusnicole284

Under which condition can muscle fibers generate the most tension and force?

A. when sarcomeres are near 100% of resting length

B. when less motor units are activated

C. when fibers are stretched so that there is no overlap between thick and thin filaments

D. when fibers contract at the fastest possible velocity

E. when the sarcomeres are as small as possible

1) Boundary lubrication:

a) Occurs if two surfaces are completely separated bylubricant

b) Occurs at low loads and high sliding speeds

c) Is a result of bone fracture

d) Lowers friction and reduces wear to zero

e) Lowers friction and reduces wear without entirely eliminatingit

2) Hydrodynamic lubrication:

a) Results in complete separation of the two sliding surfaces bya film of lubricant

b) Occurs at high loads and low sliding speeds

c) Is desirable because it causes turbulence

d) Is the lubrication mechanism in total hip prosthesis

e) Can only occur if the surfaces are very smooth

Consider the following mutations and, for each, explain whetheryou expect it to be

a) potentially promoting cancer

b) dominant or recessive

1) A mutation that destroys the active site of an enzymenecessary to promote cell cycle

2) A very premature STOP codon in a gene encoding a proteininvolved in the excision-repair mechanism

3) A point mutation that renders constitutively active one ofthe signaling proteins in the Ras pathway

4) A null mutation in a gene encoding an apoptotic(apoptosis-promoting) protein.

Need help! Consider the following mutations and, for each,explain whether you expect it to be: a) potentially promotingcancer, or b) dominant or recessive.

i) A mutation that destroys the active site of an enzymenecessary to promote cell cycle

ii) A very premature STOP codon in a gene encoding a proteininvolved in the excision-repair mechanism

iii) A point mutation that renders constitutively active one ofthe signaling proteins in the Ras pathway

iv) A null mutation in a gene encoding an apoptotic(apoptosis-promoting) protein.

Netrin-1 is a chemoattractant cue for axons that grow into the cortex from the thalamus. What cortical layer has the most severe loss of axon following genetic deletion of Netrin-1?

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 4
D Layer 5

Which of the following statements about signaling is true (select all correct answers)?

Question 3 options:

Ligands with high affinity are more likely to result in long-duration signals than ligands with low affinity

If two ligands that bind and activate the same receptor are simultaneously present, the ligand with higher affinity is the one more likely to send the signal

Small amounts of a high affinity antagonist may be able to block signaling by large amounts of a low affinity agonist

Signal transduction is a process that takes time, and therefore it does not depend on thermodynamic principles

QUESTION 1

A partial agonist would:

QUESTION 2

The presence of spare receptors means that a drug would:

QUESTION 3

A competitive antagonist would:

QUESTION 4

pH trapping explains:

QUESTION 5

An ideal drug would have:

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is most likely to cross the membrane of a cell?

QUESTION 7

Which is not a pharmacodynamic process?

QUESTION 8

A drug with a low Vd would:

QUESTION 9

First-pass metabolism does not occur through which method of drug administration?

QUESTION 10

A drug with greater efficacy would:

The receptor for platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is a receptor tyrosine kinase. Gleevec is a drug that binds the domain of the receptor that binds ATP preventing the receptor from using ATP, which is required for auto-phosphorylation. Thus, Gleevec would be properly described as ______________?

(Write out why the correct answer is correct and why the other answers are incorrect. Your explanation should be 2-5 complete, coherent sentences.) <-------- This is what I'm asking for, the answer is already provided below.

A. a competitive antagonist of PDGF

B. a non-competitive antagonist of PDGF (CORRECT ANSWER)

C. a functional antagonist of PDGF

D. a chemical antagonist of PDGF

E. an inverse agonist of the PDGF receptor

See graph link below to answer the question.

https://i.imgur.com/hUz8rzL.png

5. What is the relationship between genome size and gene number in prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A. The ratio of genome size to gene number is lower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

B. The ratio of genome size to gene number is higher in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.

C. The ratio of genome size to gene number is the same in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

In the electron transport chain, what happens if the electron transfer between Coenzyme Q and complex III is blocked?

A. Oxygen is consumed

B. Complex I is oxidized

C. Coenzyme Q is oxidized

D. Cytochrome c is oxidized

Which of the following mutations is most likely to affect the protein coded for by a eukaryotic gene?

A) A substitution mutation in the gene's enhancer

B) A substitution mutation in the gene's promoter

C) A substitution mutation in the first position of one of the gene's codons

D) A substitution mutation in one of the gene's introns

E) A substitution mutation in the third position of one of the gene's codons

Which of the following interacts with the signal sequence in order to release proteins into the periplasm? IT IS NOT SecA

Choose one:

A. SRP

B. LepB

C. SecA

D. SecB

E. SecYEG translocon

8 Which of the following choices are associated directly with SecA?

Choose one or more:

A. interacting with SecB to receive pre-secretion protein

B. having ATPase activity

C. having protease activity to cleave signal sequence

D. having chaperone activity to help fold periplasmic proteins

E. interacting with SecYEG to move protein into periplasm

F. having plunger-like activity to push protein through channel

G. interacting with trigger factor to prevent protein folding

9 The maltose-binding protein (MBP) of Escherichia coli is a periplasmic protein made of 370 amino acids that is secreted through SecYEG. SecA would use _________ATP molecules to assist with translocation of MBP. A. 20 B. 18 C. 19 D. 1 E. 370

1. Which of the following first interacts with the signal sequence on proteins that are inserted into the membrane?

Choose one:

A. SecA

B. SRP

C. LepB

D. FtsY

E. SecYEG translocon

2. Which of the following functions are associated with SRP?

Choose one or more:

A.acting as a chaperone

B.stalling translation until ribosome brought to destination

C.targeting proteins for degradation

D.bringing ribosome to SecYEG translocon

E.bringing ribosome to FtsY

F.recognizing signal sequence

1 The average amino acid length of proteins in Escherichia coli is 235. Therefore, according to the video, the elongation time for an average E. coli protein would be about _______seconds.

2 How is the small ribosomal unit positioned to allow for translation to start at the proper start codon?Choose one:

A. Shine-Dalgarno sequence

B. The start codon sequence is specifically attracted to the P site.

C. Initiation factors position the mRNA accordingly.

D. The small ribosomal subunit starts at the far 5' end of mRNA where the start codon is located.

3 ABC transporters can be efflux transporters that move molecules such as proteases, lipases, and _______out of the cell.

4 Which of the following directly describes where the name ABC transporters comes from? (It is another name for what the acronym "ABC" means.)

Choose one:

A. They act as influx channels.

B. They have membrane-spanning regions.

C. They act as efflux proteins.

D. They have nucleotide binding domains.

5 Why is ATP hydrolysis required for these transporters to operate properly?

Choose one:

A. because it causes a rotation of the channel to spin the molecule through to the other side of the membrane

B. because it causes a plunger effect to push the molecule through the channel

C. because it causes a conformational change to open the channel to the other side

D. because it causes a hydrophobic change to propel the molecule through the channel

6 Which of the following first interacts with the signal sequence on proteins that are inserted into the membrane?

Choose one:

A. SecA

B. SRP

C. LepB

D. SecYEG translocon

E. FtsY

7 Which of the following functions are associated with SRP?

Choose one or more:

A. targeting proteins for degradation

B. bringing ribosome to FtsY

C. acting as a chaperone

D. bringing ribosome to SecYEG translocon

E. stalling translation until ribosome brought to destination

F. recognizing signal sequence

8 Which of the following characteristics is associated with both the N-terminal signal sequences and the transmembrane-spanning regions of inner membrane proteins?

Choose one:

A. form β

sheet secondary structure

B. 15 amino acids in length

C. hydrophobic amino acids

D. begin with a methionine

What is the shape of Brevibacillus brevis?

Which of the following is caused by a super-antigen?

Which of the following types of skin acne are not caused by bacterial infection?

Which of the following is an example of a fomite?

Which of the following types of skin acne are not caused by bacterial infection?

Pustule

Blackhead

Papule

B & C

None of the above

Which of the following antibiotics DO NOT have a beta lactam ring?

Which of the following is known to be TRUE about dog owners and their dogs?

Clostridium difficile infections most often occur

What is the role of fecal transplants in medicine?

Discuss the significance of the following in nucleic acid synthesis and / or degradation. a. Aspartate b. uric acid. c. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase d. xanthine

identify a reactant in the light reaction of photosynthesis.

A.atp

B.h2o

C.oxygen

D.carbon dioxide

E.NADPH

A product of the light independent reaction of photosynthesis is, A product of the light independent reaction of photosynthesis is, CO2, H2O, O2, carbohydrates

The products of glycolysis are,

1.) In photosynthesis, which of the following molecules is reduced to form sugar?

a.) CO2

b.) H2O

c.) NADP+

d.) O2

2.) Light energy is converted to chemical energy in the:

a.) cytoplasm.

b.) central vacuole.

c.) nucleus.

d.) mitochondria.

e.) thylakoid membrane.

3.) Photosynthesis is the pathway used to synthesize carbohydrates from:

a.) sunlight.

b.) carbon dioxide.

c.) oxygen.

d.) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water.

e.) sunlight, carbon dioxide, and oxygen.

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding DNA is FALSE?

Question 2

DNA replication

Question 3

The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called

Question 4

Experiments have demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding the flow of genetic information is FALSE?

Question 6

If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, then the complementary strand would be

Question 7

When one DNA molecule is copied to make two new DNA molecules, the resulting DNA molecules contain

Question 8

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding DNA is FALSE?

Question 2

DNA replication

Question 3

The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is called

Question 4

Experiments have demonstrated that the "words" of the genetic code (the units that specify amino acids) are

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding the flow of genetic information is FALSE?

Question 6

If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, then the complementary strand would be

Question 7

When one DNA molecule is copied to make two new DNA molecules, the resulting DNA molecules contain

Question 8

Any change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA is called a

An example of post-translational regulation of gene expression is:

20) Examine the graph and determine the approximate ID₅₀ of the virus.

A. 10 particles

B. 5000 particles

C. 13,000 particles

D. cannot be determined from the data collected

21) Examine the graph and determine the LD₅₀ of the virus.

A. 10 particles

B. 5000 particles

C. 13,000 particles

D. cannot be determined from the data collected

22) Identify which pathogen is the least virulent on the basis of ID₅₀.

A. pathogen A with an ID₅₀ of 1000 cells

B. pathogen B with an ID₅₀ of 50 cells

C. pathogen C with an ID₅₀ of 1 cell

D. pathogenicity cannot be determined from ID₅₀ values

23) Which describes the condition in which blood contains actively dividing bacteria?

A. bacteremia

B. septicemia

C. toxemia

D. viremia

24) Hyaluronidase is which type of exoenzyme?

A. glycohydrolase

B. nuclease

C. phospholipase

D. protease

25)What is the toxic component of endotoxin?

A. lipid A

B. the core oligosaccharide

C. the O-antigen

D. the peptidoglycan subunits

26)Which toxin inhibits the release of glycine and GABA at the neuromuscular junction, thus preventing the relaxation of muscles?

A. anthrax

B. botulinum

C. diphtheria

D. tetanus

27) All pathogens satisfy Koch’s postulates.

True

False

28) Which of the following is not a type of cell junction?

centromere

desmosome

gap

tight

29) Which cells produce and secrete mucus?

ciliated epithelial cells

goblet cells

keratinized squamous epithelial cells

Peyer’s patches

11)Who first demonstrated horizontal transmission of genetic information?

A. Oswald Avery

B. Frederick Griffith
C. Barbara McClintock
D. Thomas Hunt Morgan

12) DNA strands are often denatured in the laboratory using which method?

A. adding restriction enzymes

B. freezing the sample

C. raising the temperature

D. using a cold calcium chloride solution

13) Which process produces an RNA copy of a DNA molecule?

A. replication

B. transcription
C. transformation
D. translation
14) Which best describes the mitochondrial DNA chromosome?

A. It is circular.

B. It is identical to chloroplast DNA.

C. It is viral.

D. It lacks thymine.

15) DNA polymerase III adds DNA nucleotides in which of the following direction(s)?

A. in the 3′ to 5′ direction only
B. in the 3′ to 5′ direction and in 5′ to 3′ direction

C. in the 5′ to 3′ direction on one strand and in the 3′ to 5′ direction on the complementary strand
D. in the 5′ to 3′ direction only

16) Which describes one difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication?

A. Eukaryotes have more origins of replication than prokaryotes.

B. The chromosomes are usually circular in eukaryotes and usually linear in prokaryotes.

C. The DNA is not tightly complexed with histones in eukaryotes.

D. The RNA primer is removed by ribonuclease H instead of a DNA polymerase I in prokaryotes

17) A particular genotype always produces the same phenotype.

True

False

18) Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial disease?

A. acquiring Giardia while drinking from a stream during a camping trip

B. acquiring Listeria after eating at a public restaurant

C. acquiring MRSA after touching a locker door handle after an already infected individual did so

D. obtaining a Pseudomonas respiratory infection during a recent visit to the hospital

19) What period of disease describes when the patient begins to feel general signs and symptoms?

A. incubation period

B. period of convalescence

C. period of illness

D. prodromal period

In which direction does the DNA polymerase move on the lagging strand during polymerization events?

A) 3’ to 5’ followed by 5’ to 3’

B) 3’ to 5’ only

C) 5’ to 3’ followed by 3’ to 5’

D) 5’ to 3’ only

E) None of the above

TRUE OR FALSE One creative approach to resolve the Great Depression revolved around deficit spending. This principle suggest that individuals must get into "debt" in order to get out of "debt".

Please answer the following true/false questions.

1) The Principle of Paternalism would suggest it would be acceptable to force an alcoholic into therapy to prevent him from continuing to harm himself by drinking. True or False

2) In the Principle of Autonomy, rational individuals should not be allowed to make their own decisions. True or False

3) The problem with the Principle of Utility is that it is limited to large scale social issues. True or False

What are the virulence factors that Bacillus anthracis uses to avoid host defenses?

Check All That Apply

Production of an exotoxin

Production of an exotoxin

Production of an endotoxin

Production of an endotoxin

Production of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis

Production of a capsule that inhibits phagocytosis

Production of a slime layer

Microbes of the normal flora can become pathogenic if they are allowed to gain access to a site in the body other than their normal environment.

True or False

Clostridium difficile is allowed to overgrow in the intestines when competing organisms are killed by antibiotics. Check all of the conditions that apply to antibiotic-associated colitis.

Check All That Apply

Rash

Rash

Watery diarrhea

Watery diarrhea

Exotoxin formation

Exotoxin formation

Pseudomembrane intestinal obstruction

Pseudomembrane intestinal obstruction

Bloody diarrhea

Bloody diarrhea

Toxic megacolon

The only mode of transmission for Yersinia pestis is from an infected animal to a human via a flea.

True or False

The following are questions about the Black Death; please choose all that apply.

Select one or more:

a. Use of quarantine of active cases helped prevent spread of disease.

b. Successful prevention measures included insecticides and repellants.

c. Example of a pandemic.

d. Responsible for a dramatic decrease of the population in Europe (millions dead).

e. Caused by flea bites from infected rats.

f. Was stopped by successful vaccination against Yersinia Pestis.

g. Caused by misquitoes and infected birds.

h. Occurred during the middle ages.

what percentage of sperm and egg bearing couple become pregnant within the first 3 month?

pregnancy test at the store test for presence of ?(check all that apply)

A. HCG

B. Human baby

C. chemical difference between gestational parent and baby

D. Progesterone level

E. Estrogen level

1) For cold-blooded animal, as their body temperature decreases, respiration rates:

a) decrease

b) increase

c) remain the same

Why?

2) For a warm-blooded animal, what happens to their metabolic rate if the environmental temperature were lowered?

a) decrease

b) increase

c) remain the same

Why?

Agnes is a 75 year old female who has had Type 2 Diabetes for >15 Years. Which of the following about Agnes is true when it comes to season flu?

Only when T cell counts drop below 300·mm^-3 blood should treatment start in order to stop the progression from HIV-infection to AIDS:

True

False