BIOL 1001 : Biology 1001 Exam 1

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azuremammoth471

15 Mar 2019

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Rna polymerase reaches a stop codon and the structure disassembles releasing mrna into the cytoplasm. What kind of dna do all living things have double stranded dsdna double stranded deoxyribonucleic acid. Enzyme involved in dna replication that is responsible for linking together nucleotide fragments. polymer a molecule made up of repeating subunits ribozyme molecule that served as the genetic information and as a catalyst in early protocells. Rna polymerase reads the sequence and adding in rna nucleotides to create a strand of mrna. Rna molecules that can act as enzymes, rna molecules that can catalyze reactions, especially those involved in synthesis and processing of rna itself monomer small unit that can repeat to build a bigger molecule enzyme biological catalyst. Enzyme involved in dna replication which adds in nucleotides from the cytoplasm to make the new strand of dna. How many hydrogen bonds do cytosine and guanine have? which scientist disapproved the spontaneous generation theory.

Related Questions

Which of the following did Erwin Chargaff observe?

A)	Base composition changes as the organism ages.

B)	Base composition of DNA does not vary from one species toanother.

C)	In all species the number of adenines equals the number ofguanines.

D)	In all species A + T = G + C.

E)	DNAs isolated from different tissues of the same species havethe same base composition.

The melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA duplex is:

A)	the temperature at which double-stranded nucleic acids degradeinto free nucleotides.

B)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is toosingle-stranded to ever renature back to double strands.

C)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA is completelymelted.

D)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA has become 50%single-stranded.

E)	the temperature at which double-stranded DNA begins to melt.

Given your knowledge and the descriptions of each of thesemethods, which of the following does NOT rely on the ability ofnucleic acids to hybridize with each other?

A)	Southern blotting for the detection of specific DNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

B)	Colony blot hybridization to identify a specific sequence from acollection of sequences that have been inserted into bacteria.

C)	Northern blotting for the detection of specific RNA fragmentsthat have been separated by gel electrophoresis.

D)	A DNA oligonucleotide microarray incubated with probes made fromcDNA.

E)	Western blotting for the detection of specific proteins thathave been separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is a possible reason why DNA uses thymineinstead of uracil?

A)	Cytidine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult forany repair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongsin the sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

B)	Adenine is deaminated to uracil so it would be difficult for anyrepair mechanism to differentiate between uracil that belongs inthe sequence and uracil that resulted from deamination.

C)	When uracil is bound to a deoxyribose it will become morereactive, forming covalent bonds with other bases.

D)	None of the above.

Which of the following is an enzyme used in cloning to breakcovalent bonds?

A)	DNA ligase

B)	Restriction endonuclease

C)	Reverse transcriptase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Alkaline phosphatase

Which of the following could you use to remove the 5' phosphatesafter cleavage of a plasmid with a single type of restrictionenzyme to ensure that the plasmid would not simply fuse backtogether upon addition of ligase?

A)	Reverse transcriptase

B)	Alkaline phosphatase

C)	DNA ligase

D)	DNA polymerase I

E)	Restriction endonuclease

Which of the following would you use to create a cDNA librarythat you would not use for a genomic library?

A)	Alkaline phosphatase

B)	Reverse transcriptase

C)	Restriction endonuclease

D)	DNA ligase

E)	DNA polymerase I

A plasmid vector typically has which of the followingfeatures?

A)	An origin of replication

B)	A selectable marker to ensure that the only bacteria growingcontain the intact or recombinant vector.

C)	Unique restriction sites for insertion of DNA.

D)	Small size to facilitate entry into the cell and biochemicalmanipulation of the DNA.

E)	All of the above are features of plasmid vectors.

Which of the following is FALSE of genomic or cDNAlibraries?

A)	Genes represented in cDNA libraries include control sequencesthat direct transcription.

B)	cDNA libraries contain cDNAs made from mRNA.

C)	Genomic libraries contain fragments of genomic DNA that aregenerated by partial digests with restriction enzymes.

D)	Genomic libraries usually contain large fragments and are likelyto be constructed in YAC or BAC vectors.

E)	cDNA libraries contain sequences from expressed genes only.

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of apolymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

dNTPs

B)	DNA containing the sequences to be amplified

C)	DNA ligase to connect the fragments together

D)	Primers complementary to each end of the sequence to beamplified

E)	Heat stable Taq polymerase

How can a fusion protein be formed?

A)	Site-directed mutagenesis where a fragment is replaced with asynthetic sequence containing the altered DNA sequence.

B)	Two proteins can recombine in the bacterial cell to form a newhybrid protein.

C)	Portions of two different genes are ligated together to create anew hybrid gene. When expressed the gene product is a fusion of thetwo gene products.

D)	Using oligonucleotide-directed mutagenesis to introduce specificmutations that cause the expressed protein to fuse to otherproteins.

E)	A portion of the gene can be removed to form a shorter gene andtherefore a shorter protein.

Why is green fluorescent protein (GFP) so useful in visualizingfusion proteins in eukaryotes?

A)	The GFP protein recognizes and binds to fusion proteins allowingthe location of the fusion protein to be determined.

B)	The reaction is only dependent on the presence of GFP and oneother cofactor.

C)	It is easily cloned and expressed in bacterial cells.

D)	The presence of just a few molecules of GFP fusion proteins canbe sufficient for observing the proteins microscopically allowingthe study of its location and movements in the cell.

E)	It is derived from fire flies, which are easy to cultivate inthe lab.

You wish to determine the cellular location of a protein butunfortunately it is not particularly antigenic (can t develop astrong antibody response). How could you solve this problem?

A)	Create a fusion protein with an epitope tag that can bevisualized by incubation with fluorescently tagged antibody to theepitope.

B)	Create a fusion with green fluorescent protein (GFP).

C)	Express the protein as a fusion with biotin. The addition of GFPwill cause fluorescence.

D)	A and B might work.

E)	A, B, and C might work.

F)	None of the above will work.

A positive result for the yeast two-hybrid analysis means thefollowing:

A)	The proteins that you are studying can be made into fusionproteins, but do NOT interact with each other within the nucleus ofyeast.

B)	A fusion protein containing the Gal4p activation domain, hasbound to RNA polymerase resulting increase transcription ofnumerous genes, including the reporter gene, and formation ofcolonies.

C)	Two fusion proteins, one containing the Gal4p binding sitedomain and one containing the Gal4p activation domain, haveinteracted through their Gal4p domains resulting in transcriptionof the reporter gene.

D)	Two fusion proteins interact with each other and because of theGal4p binding site domain and the Gal4p activation domain containedin each fusion protein, the reporter genes are activated and thecells die resulting in no colonies.

E)	The colonies growing are expressing the two fusion proteins, butthe two proteins have not interacted with each other.

Which of the following is the approximate size of the humangenome?

3 Gm

300 Kb

3 Mb

3 Gb

3 Mm

Which of the following is correct about the structure orlocation of genes?

Question 22 options:

A)	Prokaryotic genes typically possess their own regulatorysequences that only control expression of a single gene.

B)	Eukaryotic genes often encode introns that are spliced outbefore translation.

C)	Eukaryotic genes are mostly located at the telomeres and thecentromeres of chromosomes.

D)	Eukaryotic genes are typically arranged in operons.

E)	Prokaryotic genes often encode exons that are spliced out beforetranslation

copperskunk824

13. The arms of a human and the wing of a bat are _________________ structures, composed of the same bones that have been modified for different functions.

analogous

vestigial

c.	homologous

d.	convergent

14. Xeroderma pigmentosum is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. People who are homozygous for the disease-causing allele have skin that is damaged by exposure to ultraviolet radiation; this can lead to skin cancer at an early age. The mutation that causes this disorder is in a gene that functions:

a.	to repair DNA by excising (removing) nucleotides damaged by UV light.

b.	in lysosomes, to break down lipids that otherwise accumulate in the nervous system.

c.	to produce the UV blocking pigment melanin in the skin cells

d.	in red blood cells to carry oxygen to the skin.

15. The Amish are a religious sect descended from a small group of colonists who came to the United States over 200 years ago. Their religious beliefs have kept them isolated from society. The Amish have a much higher than average incidence of both polydactyly (extra fingers and toes) and dwarfism in their communities. This is most likely explained by:

a.	inheritance of acquired characters.

b.	the founder effect.

c.	disruptive selection.

d.	natural selection.

16. In the structure of DNA that Watson and Crick proposed, the sides of the "ladder" of the DNA molecule are always the same distance apart, making the molecule a constant width. This occurs because when the bases hydrogen bond to form the rungs of the "ladder", a:

a.	purine always pairs with a pyrimidine.

b.	purine always pairs with a purine.

c.	pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrmidine.

d.	The structure of the double helix is not determined by how the bases pair.

17. The RNA transcript of DNA that travels to the cytoplasm, carrying the instructions to make a protein, is called:

rRNA.

tRNA.

mRNA.

d.	RNA polymerase.

18. When DNA is replicated, the error rate is approximately one error for every 10,000 nucleotides copied. However, that error rate is reduced to only 1 error for every 1 billion nucleotides. The DNA sequence is "corrected" by:

a.	repeating S phase to see if the error rate is lower the second time around.

b.	enzymes that proofread the DNA and repair errors.

c.	messenger RNA during the process of transcription.

d.	Any errors made during DNA replication cannot be corrected. If errors are detected after S phase, the cell is destroyed.

19. Mendel's principle of segregation says that:

a.	when gametes are formed, each gamete receives only one allele for a particular gene.

b.	some genes are dominant to others.

c.	a testcross must be used to determine the genotype of an organism with a dominant phenotype.

d.	all of the above

20. Tay-Sachs disease is lethal before reproductive age, but the allele persists in Louisiana French Canadians because:

a.	it is a dominant allele.

b.	new mutations causing this disease are common in that population.

c.	it is not expressed in the phenotype of heterozygous individuals.

d.	the disease is contagious and can be transmitted by nonheritable means.

21. Physical features that are similar in organisms which are not closely related to each other are most likely a result of ____________. A good example of this is the similarities seen between some marsupial and placental mammals.

a.	natural selection.

b.	adaptation to similar environments

c.	convergent evolution

d.	All of the above phrases can be used to correctly fill this blank.

22. In humans, which of the following sex chromosome compliments could be found in males?

23. The proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes:

a.	help to package the DNA within the nucleus.

b.	are involved in gene expression, through binding with the DNA.

c.	may be replicating or transcribing the DNA.

d.	All of these are true of proteins that are associated with eukaryotic chromosomes.

24. A sequence of DNA nucleotides that contains the information to produce a single protein is a(n):

codon.

gene.

c.	polypeptide.

d.	anticodon.

whitelizard672

1. Unlike Ebola virus, SARS virus
a. has large spikes that look like a âcrownâ.
b. is enveloped.
c. is helical.
d. is in the family Togaviridae.
e. is a ssRNA virus.

2. Which virus or virus family is described in the followingpassage?
Electron micrographs of the hemagglutinin subunits (in the presenceof SDS) showed
rods approximately 40 Ã wide and 140 Ã long. The neuraminidasesubunits had a quite
different appearance. In the presence of SDS, these were seen asoblong structures about 85 Ã long and 50 Ã wide with a centrallyattached fibre 100 Ã long possessing what appeared to be a diffusetail or small knob about 40 Ã in diameter at its end.1
a. Togaviridae
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. Smallpox virus
d. Orthomyxoviridae
e. Filoviridae
f. Rabies virus

3-Following is a passage from the New England Journal ofMedicine:
______________________ is an exclusively human herpesvirus that ...becomes latent in
cranial-nerve and dorsal-root ganglia, and frequently reactivatesdecades later to produce shingles and postherpetic neuralgia. Inimmunocompetent elderly persons or
immunocompromised patients, ____________________ may producedisease of the central nervous system.
This passage refers to which virus?
a. West Nile virus
b. Smallpox virus
c. Epstein-Barr virus
d. Ebola virus
e. Varicella-zoster virus

4. Pneumoviruses can cause colds and pneumonia in humans. They aresingle-stranded,
negative-sense, nonsegmented RNA viruses. These enveloped virusesare surrounded by an envelope that is characterized by fusionglycoproteins and host-derived proteins. With this knowledge, it islikely that pneumoviruses
a. enter host cells via endocytosis.
b. leave host cells by budding.
c. enter host cells via membrane fusion.
d. A and B
e. B and C

5. Recall that poliovirus is a positive-sense (+) ssRNA virus. The5â Ã ? 3â strand of RNA,
once uncoating has taken place, can serve as an mRNA and encode forviral proteins.
However, in order for the virus to create more +ssRNA to package indaughter viruses, it must
a. generate a dsRNA molecule that can encode for the synthesis ofmore +RNA.
b. integrate into the host cell DNA.
c. utilize an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase to make aheteroduplex.
d. undergo reassortment
e. All of the above

6. Some influenza hosts, such as humans and pigs, cansimultaneously contract human,
avian and swine influenza viruses at the same time. What can occurduring the maturation phase of virus replication in such ahost?
a. Reassortment
b. RNA of all three sources: human, swine and avian, can bepackaged into a single
virion.
c. Genetic shift
d. All of the above

7. The HIV virion contains enzymes/proteins that do all of thefollowing EXCEPT
a. An enzyme that creates âDNA using +RNA as template.
b. A protein that serves as a chemokine receptor.
c. A DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
d. An enzyme that allows +/- viral DNA to be spliced into the hostcellâs DNA.
e. A protein that mediates membrane fusion.

8. After a long series of biochemical tests, Kyle and Matt werefinally able to identify their Gram-negative unknowns asPseudomonas aeruginosa and Shigella dysenteriae,
respectively. As they compare notes, they realize that theirunknowns are in the
___________ Pseudomonadaceae and Enterobacteriaceae, respectively.However, they also note that both of their unknowns are in the______________ ? proteobacteria.
a. genera, species
b. phyla, family
c. families, class
d. order, phyla
e. classes, order

9-Hydrogenobaculum acidophilum is a resident of YellowstoneâsNorris Geyser basin. This thermoacidophilic microbe grows instringy, white mats and is a member of the phylum Aquificae.Hydrogenobaculum acidophilum
a. could be further researched in Volume 2 of Bergeyâs Manual ofSystematic
Bacteriology.
b. is in the domain Archaea.
c. is a deeply branching bacterium.
d. is a proteobacterium.
e. All of the above

10-After talking about the Group A Streptococci (GAS) and theircapability to sometimes cause a flesh-eating disease callednecrotizing fasciitis, Derek decides to research this group a bitmore. As he reads, he quickly learns that
a. they are microaerophilic Gram-negative rods.
b. they are in the phylum ?-proteobacteria.
c. they are found Volume 4 of Bergeyâs Manual of SystematicBacteriology.
d. they have less than 50 mol % GC content.
e. none of the above

BIOL 1001 : Biology 1001 Exam 1

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