BIOL 1202 : Moodle Quiz 3 BIOLOGY 1202

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azuremammoth471

15 Mar 2019

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Biology 1202: the category that is always italicized and capitalized is: Select one: genus, domain, species, family, oxygen has a ___ influence on the prebiotic formation of complex organic molecules because ___. False: populations of protobionts (pre-living cells) could begin to undergo evolution by natural selection only when ___. Select one: they were first able to catalyze reactions, dna first appeared, some kind of hereditary mechanism developed, they were able to grow and split in two, _______ is a more inclusive group than _______. Assume that decay of 14c is the only source of 14n in fossils. Your answer is in years and should be a whole number only with no words or decimals (e. g. , 340 not 340. 0) Answer: 11460: ribosomal rna gene sequences are highly conserved. These genes are best used to examine the evolutionary relationship among: The half-life of 40k is 1. 3 billion years.

Related Questions

It's a quiz for my life science class.

QUESTION 1

Organisms that have descended from the same initial group and have the ability to interbreed belong to the same

	A.	species.
	B.	family.
	C.	class.
	D.	genus.
	E.	order.

5 points

QUESTION 2

The simplest entity that exhibits all of the properties of life is called a(n)

	A.	molecule.
	B.	cell.
	C.	organism.
	D.	tissue.

5 points

QUESTION 3

In populations, adaptation usually arises through

	A.	responsiveness.
	B.	heredity.
	C.	metabolism.
	D.	natural selection.
	E.	development.

5 points

QUESTION 4

Scientists have found that ancient fossils

	A.	are less similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
	B.	are just as similar to present-day organisms as more recent fossils.
	C.	are more similar to present-day organisms than more recent fossils.
	D.	are very similar to present-day organisms.
	E.	bear no resemblance to present-day organisms.

5 points

QUESTION 5

What is the term that describes the study of the relationship between living things and components of their environment?

	A.	herpetology
	B.	analogy
	C.	zoology
	D.	ecology
	E.	ichnology

5 points

QUESTION 6

Characteristics usually associated with life include all of the following except:

	A.	motility.
	B.	a high degree of organization.
	C.	lack of change from generation to generation.
	D.	reproduction.
	E.	responsiveness to stimuli.

5 points

QUESTION 7

The scientific name for the black-footed ferret is Mustela nigripes. The name Mustela indicates the _____________________ to which the organisms belongs.

	A.	phylum
	B.	class
	C.	family
	D.	species
	E.	genus

5 points

QUESTION 8

Which of the following is considered to be the most basic living unit?

	A.	organ system
	B.	molecule
	C.	organelle
	D.	cell
	E.	tissue

5 points

QUESTION 9

Which of the following concepts best describes the wide variety of dog species we observe, ranging from the domesticated golden retriever or the basset hound, to the wild dogs of Africa, to foxes?

	A.	preadaptation
	B.	special creation
	C.	inheritance of acquired characteristics.
	D.	taxonomy
	E.	evolution

5 points

QUESTION 10

If an ecologist is studying the cycling of carbon through a particular environment (which involes the movement of carbon through living things as well as through rock, air, and water), the scientist is studying at what level of ecology?

	A.	organismal
	B.	community
	C.	ecosystem
	D.	population
	E.	biosphere

5 points

QUESTION 11

Which list is organized from smallest to largest level of organization of life?

	A.	organisms, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, organelles
	B.	organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
	C.	organelles, tissues, cells, organ systems, organs, organisms
	D.	tissues, cells, organelles, organs, organ systems, organisms
	E.	cells, tissues, organ systems, organelles, organs, organisms

5 points

QUESTION 12

When examining the hierarchy of life, which of the following terms is most inclusive?

	A.	biosphere
	B.	population
	C.	species
	D.	ecosystem

5 points

QUESTION 13

The units of inheritance are

	A.	evolutions.
	B.	heredities.
	C.	genes
	D.	twins.
	E.	metabolic activities.

5 points

QUESTION 14

Organisms that undergo asexual reproduction

	A.	require another organism to reproduce.
	B.	are usually very complex.
	C.	produce offspring that are different from each other.
	D.	do not require energy to reproduce.
	E.	produce offspring that are identical to each other and to the parent.

5 points

QUESTION 15

All the living organisms in a particular area at a particular time make up a

	A.	biosphere.
	B.	community.
	C.	biosystem.
	D.	population.
	E.	ecosystem.

5 points

QUESTION 16

The first step in the scientific method is to

	A.	identify a problem.
	B.	predict the results of an experiment.
	C.	propose a solution.
	D.	draw a conclusion.
	E.	perform an experiment.

5 points

QUESTION 17

Young multicelled organisms usually start out small, then grow in size, and increase in complexity. This process is called:

	A.	heredity.
	B.	metabolism.
	C.	development.
	D.	evolution.
	E.	heredity.

5 points

QUESTION 18

To maintain order within their cells and organs, all living things must

	A.	carry on metabolism.
	B.	reproduce.
	C.	constantly change.
	D.	be able to move.
	E.	extract energy from sunlight.

5 points

QUESTION 19

Which of the following includes Highest levels of hierarchy?

	A.	family
	B.	phylum
	C.	domain
	D.	kingdom
	E.	order

5 points

QUESTION 20

Fungi are classified into which domain?

	A.	Archaea
	B.	Eukarya
	C.	Bacteria
	D.	Fungi

erinhare264

1. Humans have the scientific name Homo sapiens. We are members of the family Pongidae, in the order Primates, in the class Mammalia, in the phylum Chordata. Based only on this information, which of the following is not a correct statement?

a. The speciation event (lineage-splitting) that generated the genus Homo occurred earlier than the speciation event that generated the species H. sapiens.

b. The most inclusive of these taxonomic groups is Chordata.

c. The genus Homo might have as many species as are in the entire family Pongidae.

d. There can be no other species in the genus Homo.

e. All mammals must be Chordates.

2. Endotherms differ from ectotherms in that:

a. Environmental temperature has little effect on the energy budget of endotherms but a strong effect on the energy budget of ectotherms.

b. An endotherm's metabolic rate is not affected by temperature whereas the metabolism of an ectotherm has a Q10 of 2-3.

c. Endotherms are vertebrates and ectotherms are invertebrates.

d. On average, endotherms are much better sprinters (i.e., can run faster for short distances) than ectotherms.

e. Endotherms are much better able to support endurance exercise than ectotherms.

3. You measure oxygen consumption of a lizard at three temperatures, as follows: 18 Â°C: 0.090 ml O2/min 23 Â°C: 0.135 ml O2/min 28 Â°C: 0.200 ml O2/min From these data you calculate the Q10 to be:

a. 1.8

b. 2.0

c. 2.2

d. 2.5

e. none of these are correct.

4. What is the best description of how evolution by selection (natural or artificial) works?

a. mutation generates variation randomly, sex makes new combinations of genes randomly, and selection picks the best ones for reproduction.

b. selection leads to non-random mutation to make useful new alleles, which are then combined by sex.

c. exposure to environmental factors leads to non-random mutations that improve fitness.

d. through selection, mutations occur in those genes that will improve fitness.

e. mutation generates random new alleles, and sex combines them in ways that select the best for future generations.

5. Which of the following is a correct match between a major lineage and its characteristics?

a. Archaea: extremophiles, ribosomes, RNA as genetic material, no nuclear membrane

b. Eukarya: mitochondria, DNA as genetic material, photosynthetic or chemohetrotrophic

c. Bacteria: mitochondria, DNA as genetic material, no nuclear membrane

d. Eumetazoa: extremophiles, ribosomes, DNA as genetic material, nuclear membrane, chemoheterotrophic

e. Protostomes: triploblastic, eucoelomate, blastopore becomes anus, indeterminate cleavage

6. Which of the following statements about animal life history events is correct?

a. Being multicellular requires a larval stage in the life cycle.

b. Mutation is sufficient to produce considerable genetic variation between different tissues in an individual.

c. Senescence is defined by slow, constant decline in survival as individuals get older.

d. Different cell types are formed when different but specific portions of the zygoteâs DNA are lost from the different germ layers during development.

e. In an individual, the only cells that differ genetically from other cells are gametes.

7. Which of the following statements about terrestrial vertebrates is correct?

a. Jaws evolved from paired appendages, which in turn evolved because they improved swimming ability.

b. Legs evolved from fins after early fishlike vertebrates invaded the land.

c. Jaws and inner ear bones evolved from gill arches, and leglike appendages evolved under selection for aquatic locomotion.

d. Viviparity (giving birth to well-developed young instead of laying eggs) was vital to the ability to reproduce on land without returning to the water.

e. Lungs for breathing air evolved after early fishlike vertebrates invaded the land (the first land vertebrates had to depend on gills for breathing air)

8. The essential features of a hydrostatic skeleton include:

a. antagonistic muscles.

b. a non-deformable fluid-filled space

c. flexible joints.

d. compressible material capable of changing volume

e. all of the above (a) â (d) are correct.

9. You are a Peace Corps volunteer physician in a developing country. You notice that some of the villages you visit have a high incidence of a parasitic disease, but other nearby villages are unaffected. Investigating you find the villages with disease are in wet areas with lots of snails and frogs, while the disease-free villages are in drier places but have lots of insects and mice. From this information, what might you reasonably conclude about the type of parasite responsible for the disease?

a. Itâs a trematode (these need mollusks as intermediate hosts).

b. Itâs a nematode (these are vectored mainly by frogs).

c. Itâs an apicomplexan parasite (these require wet areas and enter the skin through standing water).

d. Itâs a trypanosome (these are transmitted by mammal bites).

e. The information doesnât provide useful clues about the type of parasite.

10. Which of the following pairs of primary diagnostic characters is correctly matched with taxonomic groups?

a. circulatory system vs. water vascular system: Nematoda vs. Echinodermata

b. schizocoely vs. enterocoely: Radiata vs. Bilateria

c. pharyngeal slits vs. polyp and medusa: Chordata vs. Cnidaria

d. gastrovascular cavity vs. complete gut: Cnidaria vs. Cestoda

e. hemocoel vs. contractile vacuole: apicomplexans vs. rhizopoda

Please provide explanation too.

i need question number nine please

Case Study Section 2 â glycolysis
Based on âMonday at the Metabolic Clinic, Adventures in Glycolysisâ by Nancy Boury (National Center for Case Study Teaching in Science)

Background:
You have been chosen for a very competitive undergraduate clinical internship at St. Visintainerâs Hospital and Metabolic Clinic working with Dr. Saccharo, an expert in enzyme deficiency disorders related to glycolysis. Before your first day Dr. Saccharo has asked that you review the reactions of glycolysis and the concept of isoenzymes.

Recall that isoenzymes are groups of enzymes that catalyze the same reaction in that they use the same reactants to product the same products. They may have different genes, tissue expression, developmental timing of expression, and affinities for their substrates. As an example, phosphofructokinase-1 has 3 isoenzyme forms: PFK-L is expressed in the liver and the gene is found on chromosome 21; PFK-M is expressed in the muscle and the gene is found on chromosome 12; and PFK-P is expressed in platelets and the gene is found on chromosome 10.

Question 1:
If a person would be deficient in all 3 forms of PFK-1, this person would .
A. Have lower than normal glycogen stores.
B. Have more mitochondrial activity than normal.
C. Be dead.
D. Produce more energy per glucose molecule because glycolysis would be unregulated.

It is now Monday morning and you are ready to start seeing patients with Dr. Saccharo.

Patient 1:
Ann is a teenager and avid golfer who was referred to the clinic after being refused at the blood drive and tiring easily on the high school golf course during practice. Ann is examined and a blood sample was obtained for analysis of a glycolysis related metabolic panel. The results of her panel is below (levels: + = normal, - = decreased; ++= increased):
Blood Metabolic Panel
Blood Glucose +
Glucose-6-phosphate ++
Fructose-6-phosphate ++
Fructose-1,6,bisphosphate ++
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate ++
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate ++
Phosphoenolpyruvate ++
Pyruvate -
ATP -
Red Blood Cell Concentration -
Question 2:
Assuming that Dr. Saccharo is correctly assuming that Ann has a defect in glycolysis, what glycolytic enzyme is the most likely to have the defect based on the blood metabolic profile?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Triose Phosphate Isomerase
D. Pyruvate Kinase
E. Aldolase

Patient 2:
Marie is a 32-year-old mother of three complaining of fatigue and muscle cramps with exercise. She had always blamed her intolerance to exercise on her sedentary lifestyle. However, she recently joined a gym and after a week of aerobics classes went to her physician, who ordered a series of blood tests. The blood work came back with abnormal results, leading to her muscle biopsy and referral to the metabolic clinic. Marieâs blood was subjected to the same metabolic panel used before with the following results:
Blood Metabolic Panel
Blood Glucose +
Glucose-6-phosphate ++
Fructose-6-phosphate ++
Fructose-1,6,bisphosphate -
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate -
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate -
Pyruvate -
ATP -
Red Blood Cell Concentration -

Marieâs muscle biopsy was also analyzed and showed an excess of glycogen.

Question 3:
What is the most likely enzyme deficiency for Marie?
A. Hexokinase
B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Triose Phosphate Isomerase
D. Pyruvate Kinase
E. Aldolase

Question 4:
If you wanted to test the ability of red blood cells to complete glycolysis what compound would you try to detect?
A. Fructose-6-phosphate
B. Aldolase
C. Pyruvate
D. Phosphofructokinase
E. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate

Question 5:
If you used a sample of Marieâs blood for this, what compound could you add to enable these cells to complete glycolysis?
A. Glucose
B. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
C. Insulin
D. Glucagon
E. Fructose-6-phosphate

Patient 3:
Leo is a 25-year-old accountant that is not anemic, has perfect teeth, but has experienced two fainting spells recently. One happened after accidentally drinking a non-diet soda; the other after eating ânaturally sweetenedâ fruit salad. His dentist referred him to Dr. Saccharoâs clinic. Dr. Saccharo suspects Leo may have Hereditary Fructose Intolerance (HFI) and has recommended a closely monitored fructose tolerance test.

Hereditary Fructose Intolerance is a recessive disorder where individuals lack a functional copy of one isoform of the enzyme aldolase, specifically Aldolase B (also known as fructose-1-phosphate aldolase). In the liver, fructose is phosphorylated by Fructokinase to fructose-1-phosphate, then is cleaved by Aldolase B to glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone phosphate. Fructose-1-phosphate is also a known allosteric inhibitor of Glycogen Phosphorylase, the primary enzyme responsible for releasing glucose from glycogen.

Question 6:
As compared to a normal individual that consumes fructose, a person with HFI who ingested fructose would have (select all that apply):
A. High levels of blood fructose
B. High levels of blood fructose-1-phosphate
C. High levels of blood glucose
D. Low levels of blood fructose
E. Low levels of blood glucose

That afternoon Leo undergoes the fructose tolerance test with the following results:

Question 7:
Based on the results of the test, what was the effect of giving Leo the intravenous fructose?
A. A rise in blood glucose levels
B. A decrease in blood glucose levels
C. An increase in glycogen stores
D. A rapid drop in blood pressure

However there were complications: Soon after the test Leo orders and drinks a cup of tea, but after half the cup Leo passes out. Dr. Saccharo orders two sequential blood glucose checks. The first was 50 mg/dl and 15 minutes later Leoâs blood glucose was down to 40 mg/dl. With those results Dr. Saccharo injected something into Leoâs IV and within minutes Leo was back to normal.

Question 8:
From these results does it appear that Leo has HFI?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It is unclear from the results

Question 9:
What did Dr. Saccharo inject into Leoâs IV line?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Glucose
D. Fructose
E. Phosphofructokinase

Dr. Saccharo puts Leo on a restricted diet and orders follow-up visits.

Question 10:
Which of the following foods/ingredients would Leo NOT be allowed to eat?
A. Artificial sweeteners
B. High starch foods, such as potatoes
C. Sweet tea made with cane sugar
D. Any dairy products

Dr. Saccharo puts Leo on a restricted diet and orders follow-up visits.

Case Study Section 2 â glycolysis
Based on âMonday at the Metabolic Clinic, Adventures in Glycolysisâ by Nancy Boury (National Center for Case Study Teaching in Science)

Question 9:
What did Dr. Saccharo inject into Leoâs IV line?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Glucose
D. Fructose
E. Phosphofructokinase

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BIOL 1202 : Moodle Quiz 3 BIOLOGY 1202

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