BIS 101 Study Guide - Final Guide: Gene Expression, Video Lesson, Apoptosis

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yellowkoala407

18 Dec 2018

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Dna damage and mutation: dna damage change in chemistry of a nucleotide or any change in the chemistry of a dsdna molecule. If they are homozygous, all germ cells carry the mutation. Inversion - a chromosome mutation where a huge chunk of chromosome is reversed in its orientation leading to abnormal meiotic segregation and products: paracentric the inverted region does not contain/span the centromere. In meiosis, the crossover is resolved leading to segregation with one gamete that is normal, one that is inverted, and two that have deletions: pericentric the inverted region does contain/span the centromere. Eukaryotic gene regulation: gene expression can be regulated at the level of translation, dicer recognizes and binds to dsrna structures and cuts the structure into short. It can work h3k9ac h3k9 where the histone deacetylate enzymes (hdacs) remove acetyl modifications. If dna cannot be repaired, mutations accumulate which can lead to disease.

Related Questions

Question 10

A microscope image of a cell in interphase is treated with dyes to stain the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). This image probably displays ______.

		visible nucleoli
		separate visible chromosomes
		visible spindle fibers

1 points

Question 11

To observe plant cells undergoing mitosis, the best plant tissue to isolate would be ______.

		a section of the root tip
		a section of the mature fruit
		a section of the main stem

1 points

Question 12

Owen observes a slide containing whitefish blastula sections. He finds a cell with visible spindle lines extending from two points on opposite sides of the cell and chromosomes as small black Xs halfway between the two poles. What stage of the cell cycle is Owen observing?

		anaphase
		metaphase
		prometaphase

1 points

Question 13

What structural feature can you use to distinguish between DNA-stained onion cells in anaphase and telophase?

		Sister chromatids separate as anaphase ends and telophase begins.
		The vesicles forming a cell plate appear around the onset of telophase.
		The chromosomes are clustered at visible spindle poles during anaphase.

1 points

Question 14

A carcinogen is any substance or environmental condition that ______.

		increases the frequency of mutation
		causes direct damage to DNA
		inhibits mitosis in cancer cells

1 points

Question 15

Angelina observes a slide containing whitefish blastula sections. She finds a cell with visible spindle lines extending from two points on opposite sides of the cell and chromosomes as small black Xs halfway between the two poles. What intracellular structure forms each of the two points on opposite sides of this cell?

		a metaphase plate
		a cell plate
		a pair of centrioles

1 points

Question 16

Which of the following best describes the relationship between interphase and the cell cycle?

		Interphase is a gap between rounds of cell division.
		Interphase comprises a large majority of the cell cycle in almost all cells.
		Interphase comprises a large majority of the cell cycle in slowly and non-dividing cells.

Question 17

Radiation therapy and chemotherapy are cancer treatments that primarily attack cancer cells through ______.

		activating apoptosis in any rapidly dividing cells to kill off tumor cells
		destroying the blood vessels in cancerous tumors to block the flow of nutrients
		damaging DNA to the extent that cells die if they cannot repair the damage

yellowcat500

QuestionGroup: #21 Gene expression 2

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The direct end result of gene expression is which of the following?

Amino acids

Translation

Proteins

Carbohydrates

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QuestionGroup: #22 Mutation

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Which of the following is the ways in which nucleotide mutations lead to altered proteins?

One nucleotide is substituted by another nucleotide, which can cause an early stop codon to be incorporated into the amino acid sequence resulting in a truncated protein.

One nucleotide is replaced by another nucleotide, which can change an amino acid in the protein sequence

Nucleotides are inserted into a nucleotide sequence causing a frameshift in the sequence.

All three choices may cause mutations.

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QuestionGroup: #23 Mutation 2

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Mutations are the result of which of the following?

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different carbohydrates

Change in the normal nucleotide sequence in the DNA directly resulting in different proteins

Change in the order of transfer RNA to messenger RNA so that the transfer RNA take over the role of Messenger RNA

Primarily an alteration in the sequence of nucleotides in the abnormal proteins

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QuestionGroup: #24 Cell division

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There are two major kinds of cell division. Which of the following plays a major role in promoting genetic diversity?

Meiosis since it causes the cells to make more daughter cells than mitosis

Mitosis since it causes the cells to duplicate and eventually have mutations

Meiosis since it causes the DNA sequences to be separated into new patterns in the daughter cells.

Mitosis since it essential for the ovaries in humans to separate and duplicate

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QuestionGroup: #25 Cancer

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Genes that slow down or stop the cell cycle are called...

Apoptotic genes

Oncogenes

Restriction genes

Tumor suppressor genes

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QuestionGroup: #26 Cancer2

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The common theme in the development of all cancers is...

Mutation

Evolution

Infection

Syncopation

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QuestionGroup: #27 Genetics

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Punnett's square is which of the following?

Example of all possible combinations of alleles

Example of all possible combinations of chromosomes

Example of only certain combination of alleles since some will not be expressed.

Example of all possible combinations of DNA

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QuestionGroup: #28 Embryo development

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Which of the following is the end of the cleavage phase?

A fetus

Formation of a blastocyst

Implantation to the lining of the uterus

Fewer number of cells

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QuestionGroup: #29 Development of organ system

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For organs to be differentiated, which of the following is the first step?

Stem cells trigger the development of differentiated cells

Tissues assemble into organ systems such as blood

Tissue specific genes in stem cells are triggered

Differentiated cells form tissues

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QuestionGroup: #30 Development and society

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A pregnant mother ingests a chemical which her mother said would be great for the baby. When the baby was born, it had a large head and flippers for arms. What caused this phenotype?

The chemicals were teratogens which influenced oxidative phosphorylation causing the changes in the phenotype.

The chemicals influenced the expression of different stem cells.

There is no way to assume the chemicals caused the phenotype since we have no data on other mothers who took this medicine. It could have been purely by chance.

The chemicals were teratogens which caused the baby to show early signs of evolution.

In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that

	DNA is a double helix.
	DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
	DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
	eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
	DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.

In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.

	temperatures high enough to kill cells
	enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
	enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
	enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
	enzymes that hydrolyze RNA

Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?

	Pure RNA from S cells
	Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
	A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
	Cell-free extracts from S cells
	Pure protein from S cells

A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix

	form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
	are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
	are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
	are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
	are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.

If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?

	27
	50
	0
	73
	23

The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for

	antiparallel DNA strands.
	a right-handed helix.
	a double-stranded helix.
	3â² end phosphorylation.
	purineâpyrimidine pairing.

If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5â²-TGACTATC-3â², what is the complementary strand?

	5â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	3â²-TGACTATC-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-5â²
	3â²-ACTGATAG-3â²
	5â²-TGACTATC-3â²

What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?

	3â² end phosphorylation
	Purineâpyrimidine pairing
	Antiparallel DNA strands
	Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
	Hydrogen bonding between paired bases

If the MeselsonâStahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only ¹⁵N and the second only ¹⁴N, this result would have indicated that replication was

	unidirectional.
	dispersive.
	conservative.
	bidirectional.
	semiconservative.

10.

The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3â² hydroxyl group (âOH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.

	The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
	The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
	Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
	DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
	Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.

11.

Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?

	Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
	Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
	High temperatures are required to denature it.
	DNA synthesis requires energy.
	DNA helicases require ATP.

12.

What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?

	DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
	Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
	Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
	DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
	There would be no effect on DNA replication.

13.

To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes

	normally have uncoiled DNA.
	have multiple origins of replication.
	contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
	have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
	are composed entirely of DNA.

14.

Which statement about DNA replication is false?

	Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
	Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
	The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
	Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
	Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.

15.

In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.

	leading; telomerase
	lagging; telomerase
	lagging; DNA polymerase I
	leading; DNA polymerase I
	leading; replicase

16.

A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?

	DNA polymerase is constantly active.
	Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
	The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
	The telomerase gene is being expressed.
	The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.

17.

If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?

	The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
	The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
	The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
	There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
	DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.

18.

Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.

	1, 2, 3, 4
	2, 1, 3, 4
	3, 4, 2, 1
	2, 4, 1, 3
	4, 2, 3, 1

19.

Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.

	64
	32
	12
	128
	6

20.

When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90Â°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that

	breaks covalent bonds.
	hydrolyzes DNA.
	separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
	causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
	irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

BIS 101 Study Guide - Final Guide: Gene Expression, Video Lesson, Apoptosis

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