ECO 304K Study Guide - Quiz Guide: Pareto Efficiency, Economic Surplus, Perfect Competition

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Hamermesh: suppose that society consists of mike, mary, and andy. Mike has , mary has , and andy has sh. Consider taking from mike, giving to mary and to andy. a. The original situation is not pareto optimal because it is not equitable. b. Price increases, number of firms decreases because firms get bigger due to increasing costs. b. Increase long-run economic profits for the typical firm. b. Reduce short-run economic profits. c. raise prices paid by consumers because this innovation will increase monopoly power. d. reduce prices paid by consumers. e. reduce long-run economic profits for the typical firm.

Related Questions

The demand for money
A) d and e are correct
B) all of the following are correct
C) decreases as the average selling price of a unit of outputincreases
D) increases as GDP increases
E) is increased by credit card usage
2. The higher the interest rate, the more of their wealth peoplewill hold as money.
A) True
B) False
3. The money demand curve slopes
A) downward because the cost of holding money decreases as theinterest rate decreases
B) downward because the cost of holding money increases as theinterest rate decreases
C) upward because people demand more money as GDP increases
D) upward because people demand more money as GDP decreases
E) downward because people demand more money as the price levelincreases
4. Which of the following, other things constant, will shift themoney demand curve to the left?
A) an increase in the interest rate
B) a decrease in the interest rate
C) a decrease in real GDP
D) an increase in real GDP
E) an increase in the price level
5. An increase in the money supply will
A) increase the demand for money at each interest rate
B) decrease the demand for money at each interest rate
C) lead people to try to exchange money for interest-bearingassets
D) lead people to try to exchange interest-bearing assets formoney
E) increase the interest rate
6. When an increase in the money supply reduces the interest rate,investment and nominal GDP increase.
A) True
B) False
7. In the short run, a decrease in the money supply will cause adecrease in Gross Domestic Product and a decrease in the pricelevel.
A) True
B) False
8. The demand curve for investment is graphed with __________ onthe vertical axis and __________ on the horizontal axis.
A) the interest rate; investment
B) investment; the interest rate
C) the price level; investment
D) investment; the price level
E) real GDP; investment
9. As the interest rate increases,
A) the demand for investment curve shifts to the right
B) the demand for investment curve shifts to the left
C) there is a movement downward along the demand for investmentcurve
D) there is a movement upward along the demand for investmentcurve
E) GDP increases
10. If the economy experiences a contractionary gap and the Fedstimulates the economy, then:
A) The money supply is increasing because the Fed prints moremoney
B) The money supply is decreasing because the Fed hoardsmoney
C) The money supply is increasing because the Fed makes open-marketpurchases
D) The money supply is decreasing because the Fed makes open-marketsales
E) There is no change in the money supply because the Fed cannotinfluence the money supply
11. If the Fed decreases the money supply, GDP
A) increases because the resulting increase in the interest rateleads to a decrease in investment
B) increases because the resulting decrease in the interest rateleads to an increase in investment
C) decreases because the resulting increase in the interest rateleads to a decrease in investment
D) decreases because the resulting increase in the interest rateleads to an increase in investment
E) decreases because the resulting decrease in the interest rateleads to an increase in investment
12. An increase in the money supply can increase the price level,real GDP, or both, but it is impossible to tell exactly what willhappen without knowing the slope of the aggregate supplycurve.
A) True
B) False
13. If the economy experiences an expansionary gap and the Fedsells US government securities in the open-market, then:
A) Money supply increases, investment increases, aggregate demandincreases
B) Money supply increases, the interest rate increases, and theaggregate demand increases
C) Money supply decreases, the interest rate decreases, and theaggregate demand falls
D) Money supply decreases, the investment decreases, and theaggregate demand decreases
E) Interest rate falls, investment falls, aggregate demandincreases
14. If the money supply equals $1,000 and nominal GDP equals$3,000, then V
A) equals 1/3
B) equals 3
C) equals 3 million
D) cannot be determined since we do not know anything aboutprices
E) cannot be determined since we do not know anything about realGDP
15. If the money supply is increasing at a constant 8 percent,velocity is constant, real GDP is increasing at 5 percent, and theinflation rate is 3 percent, which of the following is true?
A) The growth rate of GDP is too low to be maintained.
B) The inflation rate is too low to be maintained.
C) Velocity is too low to be maintained.
D) The money supply growth rate is too low to be maintained.
E) This situation can continue indefinitely.
16. If real output and velocity are stable and predictable, thenthe equation of exchange can be used to derive a simplerelationship between
A) the money supply and the price level
B) the money supply and the interest rate
C) the money supply and the foreign exchange rate
D) velocity and real GDP
E) velocity and nominal GDP
17. For the quantity theory of money to yield usefulpredictions,
A) fiscal policy must be ineffective in altering aggregatedemand
B) fiscal policy must be effective in altering aggregatedemand
C) the economy must be operating at the potential level of realGross Domestic Product
D) velocity must be stable or predictable
E) velocity must be unstable
18. A rising rate of inflation
A) makes people more willing to hold money as an asset
B) reduces the usefulness of money as a store of value and thusincreases the velocity of money
C) increases the usefulness of money as a medium of exchange andthus reduces the velocity of money
D) is usually preceded by a reduction in the money supply
E) does not, apparently, have any effect on the velocity ofmoney
19. There is considerable disagreement about whether the Fedshould
A) engage in open market operations
B) have the power to set reserve requirements
C) reduce the money supply when the economy is growing
D) allow banks to invest in the stock market
E) attempt to control interest rates or should instead attempt tocontrol the money supply
20. For interest rates to remain stable during economic expansions,the growth rate of the money supply should
A) exceed the growth in the demand for money
B) just match the growth in the demand for money
C) be less than the growth in the demand for money
D) be zero
E) just match the growth in nominal GDP

salmonpug424

Please circle the right answer. (two points each)

1. If the price of gasoline is $2.0, and the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, how much will a 10 % reduction in the quantity placed on the market increase the price?

a.There will be 22% increase in the price

b.There will be 5% increase in the price

c.There will be 10 % increase in price

d.There will be 20% increase in price

e. None of the above

2.The consumer's budget line

a. indicates the options from which the consumer can choose

b. identifies the optimal basket for the consumer.

c. identifies the tastes of the consumer

d. ranks the baskets of goods in the order the consumer prefers them

e. shows that the consumer prefers more better than less

3. In the long run, a profit-maximizing firm will choose to exit a market when
a. fixed costs exceed sunk costs.
b. average fixed cost is rising.
c. revenue from production is less than total costs.
d. marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue at the current level of production.

4. When a perfectly competitive firm makes a decision to shut down, it is most likely that
a. price is below the minimum of average variable cost.
b. fixed costs exceed variable costs.
c. average fixed costs are rising.
d. marginal cost is above average variable cost.

5. Which of the following will always cause the demand curve for a product to shift to the right?

a. an increase in income whether the good is a compliment or substitute

b. an increase in the price of the compliment

c. an increase in the price of a substitute

d. an increase in technology

e. a decrease in the price of the good

6. Consumers understandably like lower prices, but they should understand there is a great difference between a lower price produced by the government price ceiling and a lower price that comes about through normal market channels, one benefits the consumer, the other may not.

a. This statement is not true, Consumers are benefited when the government lowers the price and the consumers are benefited when businesses lower the price.

b. This is because when the government forces prices down, there is a shortage and reduction in total surplus. Lower prices through markets don't create shortage but they do benefit consumers.

c. this is because the government forces prices down, there is a surplus and reduction in total surplus. Lower prices through markets don't create surpluses but they do benefit consumers

d. This is because when markets force the prices down, there is a shortage and reduction in total surplus. Lower prices through government actions don't create shortages but they do benefit consumers

e. None of the above

7. How does an increase in the price of a variable input affect the AC and the MC curves?

a. MC shifts to the right and AC increases.

b. MC shifts to the left and AC increases

c. MC shifts to the right and AC does not change

d. MC does not change but AC increases

e. none of the above

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?
a. Firms are price setters.
b. There are few sellers in the market.
c. Firms can exit and enter the market freely.
d. All of the above are correct.

9. In a perfectly competitive market, the process of entry or exit ends when
a. firms are operating with excess capacity.
b. firms are making zero economic profit.
c. firms experience decreasing marginal revenue.
d. price is equal to marginal cost.

10. The relative price of two goods is shown by:

a. the slope of an indifference curve

b. the slope of the budget line

c. the diminishing marginal rate of substitution

d. the slope of the income-consumption curve

e. none of the above

11. When firms have an incentive to exit a competitive market, their exit will

a. drive down market prices.
b. drive down the profits of existing firms in the market.
c. decrease the number of goods supplied in the market.
d. All of the above are correct.

12. If a perfectly competitive firm currently produces where the price is greater than the marginal cost, it

a. will increase its profits by producing more.
b. will increase its profits by producing less.
c. is making positive economic profits.
d. is making negative economic profits.

13. Does a consumer well being vary along a demand curve?

a. Yes. When price increases, consumers move to a lower indifference curve.

b. Yes. When price increases, consumers move to a higher indifference curve.

c. No. When price increases, consumers stay on the same indifference curve.

d. No. When price increases, the higher price has no effect on budget constraints or indifference curves.

e. None of the above

14. If a competitive firm sets its output such that marginal revenue, marginal cost, and average total cost are equal, economic profit must be:

a. Negative

b. positive

c. Zero

d. Indeterminate from the given information

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?

a. Firms are price setters.

b. There are few sellers in the market.
c. Firms can exit and enter the market freely.
d. All of the above are correct.

tanchinchilla75

Q5. Table 5.5

Total Output Total Costs

0 10

1 18

2 21

3 23

4 24

5 26

6 29

7 33

8 38

9 44

10 51

In Table 5.5, the marginal cost of the third unit is

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 3.

d. 1.

Q6. When marginal physical product begins to decline, marginal cost begins to increase.

a. true

b. false

Q7. It is possible for a firm to have positive fixed cost and zero total cost.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Marginal cost increases as marginal physical product decreases.

b. Marginal cost decreases as marginal product decreases.

c. Total cost is the difference between marginal cost and total variable cost.

d. Total cost is the sum of marginal cost plus total variable cost.

Q9. The slope of the production function becomes negative when diminishing returns set in.

a. true

b. false

Q10. Table 5.7

Q Total Variable Cost Average Variable Cost Total Cost Average Total Cost

1 10 50

2 50 90

3 40

Refer to Table 5.7. What is the firm's total fixed cost?

a. 20

b. 40

c. 10

d. 30

Q11. When there are economic profits in a perfectly competitive industry

a. firms have no incentive to exit or enter the industry.

b. firms exit the industry.

c. firms enter the industry.

d. the high barriers to entry prevent further competition.

Q12. The market structure of perfect competition is defined by hundreds of firms producing an essential product, with barriers to the entry of new firms.

a. true

b. false

Q13. A single supplier of a good or service for which there is no close substitute is referred to as a(n)

a. monopolistic competitor.

b. strategic competitor.

c. monopoly.

d. oligopoly.

Q14. For the perfectly competitive firm the selling price of its product is determined by

a. the length of time it has been in business.

b. the amount it chooses to spend on marketing.

c. the interaction of market supply and demand.

d. the number of competing firms.

Q15. A company finds that at the MR = MC output level, its total cost is $500, total variable cost is $400, and total revenue is $450. Your advice to the firm is to

a. reduce output to reduce the cost of production.

b. continue to produce, as total revenue covers total variable cost.

c. increase output to reduce the per unit cost of production.

d. shut down immediately.

Q16. For a monopolist

a. P > MR.

b. P = MC.

c. P = ATC.

d. P = MR.

Q17. The perfect competitor

a. chooses the profit-maximizing quantity.

b. chooses the profit-maximizing price.

c. chooses a quantity that will make the most efficient use of his labor and capital resources.

d. produces what he thinks can be sold, regardless of cost.

Q18. In perfect competition, the larger firms will be able to charge a higher price than the smaller firms.

a. true

b. false

Q19. For the perfectly competitive firm, price equals marginal revenue.

a. true

b. false

Q20. For a monopolist, selling more units requires

a. allowing more firms to enter the industry.

b. hiring a more productive labor force.

c. forming a cartel.

d. lowering the selling price.

Q21. Monopolistic competition means

a. monopolies from several countries compete in the global market.

b. a large number of firms producing differentiated products.

c. a large number of firms producing homogeneous products.

d. few firms producing differentiated products.

Q22. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

a. true

b. false

Q23. By saying that firms in an oligopoly are interdependent, we mean that

a. actions by one will prompt reactions by others.

b. if one increases its profits, all others will increase profits as well.

c. all firms sell identical products.

d. if one increases its profits, all others will lose profits.

Q24. Price leadership is a form of

a. barrier to entry.

b. tacit collusion.

c. opportunistic behavior.

d. noncooperative behavior.

Q25. A monopolistically competitive firm in the long run

a. earns positive economic profits.

b. earns negative economic profits.

c. earns zero economic profits.

d. suffers economic losses.

Q26. Monopolistically competitive firms produce a product that is homogeneous.

a. true

b. false

Q27. Which of the following is a characteristic of both perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

a. In the long run, the firm will produce the output which minimizes average total cost.

b. Firms sell a homogeneous product.

c. In the long run, the firm will earn zero economic profit.

d. The firm seeks to differentiate its product from those of its competitors.

Q28. A monopolistically competitive firm uses advertising to

a. lower its costs.

b. differentiate its product.

c. signal its competitors that it is serious about staying in business.

d. motivate its work force.

Q29. For the monopolistic competitor, which is INCORRECT?

a. The profit maximizing rate of output is where the marginal cost curve intersects the marginal revenue curve.

b. The marginal revenue curve is downward sloping and lies below the demand curve.

c. Because the firm has some control over price, its demand curve slopes downward.

d. If the firm in a monopolistically competitive industry were making economic losses, firms would enter the industry.

Q30. Which of the following is TRUE?

a. In the model of price leadership, the dominant firm consistently charges the lowest price.

b. Opportunistic behavior is discouraged by the desire to have repeat transactions.

c. The strategic dependence that characterizes oligopoly means that no firms can earn positive accounting profits.

d. Price wars are most common in perfect competition.

Q31. Antitrust legislation seeks to correct market failure by ensuring that all firms in the industry earn an economic profit.

a. true

b. false

Q32. Market failures arise when

a. people look out for their own best interests.

b. there is a gap between the social and private costs of producing or consuming a good.

c. firms look out for their own best interests.

d. society seeks to operate at a point on the production possibilities curve.

Q33. Cases prosecuted under the Sherman Antitrust Act are intended to correct market failure arising from negative externalities.

a. true

b. false

Q34.

Figure 8.2

Refer to Figure 8.2. The market equilibrium is Q1. Point Q2 represents the optimal point of production. To reach Q2,

a. consumption of the good could be taxed.

b. a subsidy could be given to consumers.

c. production of the good could be taxed.

d. the industry producing the good should operate as a cartel.

Q35. What would happen in a free market system when production of a good generates negative externalities?

a. There would be a shortage of the good.

b. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be more than the efficient amount.

c. The equilibrium quantity of the good would be less than the efficient amount.

d. There would be a surplus of the good.

Q36. If providing a service results in negative external costs, then

a. the market price is below the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

b. the market price is above the true opportunity cost of resources used to provide the service.

c. the market quantity is too low.

d. market forces will always correct the problem.

Q37. The problem of positive externalities can be addressed by having some firms exit the industry.

a. true

b. false

Q38. The first case prosecuted under the Sherman Act was the antitrust case against Microsoft.

a. true

b. false

Q39. If your marginal tax rate is always higher than your average tax rate, then the tax system is a

a. proportional tax system.

b. regressive tax system.

c. fair tax system.

d. progressive tax system.

Q40. Private goods are characterized by the principle of rival consumption.

a. true

b. false

Q41. Collective bargaining is the process by which unions and employers negotiate the conditions of employment and wages.

a. true

b. false

Q42. The marginal physical product of labor is the addition to total revenue a firm experiences when it hires one additional worker.

a. true

b. false

Q43. A firm's marginal revenue product of labor curve is also

a. its labor demand curve.

b. its total revenue line.

c. its long-run input cost function.

d. its marginal cost curve.

Q44. An increase in the selling price of a product

a. increases the supply of labor to the industry.

b. increases the productivity of labor.

c. raises the firm's demand for labor.

d. decreases the supply of labor to the industry.

Q45. If unions succeed at restricting the supply of labor in any one area of the economy, wages in that sector will increase.

a. true

b. false

Q46. The fact that the labor supply curve slopes upward indicates that

a. workers seek to work more hours when the wage rises.

b. the income effect of a wage increases outweighs the substitution effect.

c. workers seek to work more hours when the wage decreases.

d. firms want to hire more workers when the wage rises.

Q47. The upward slope of the labor supply curve suggests that the income effect of a wage increase outweighs the substitution effect.

a. true

b. false

Q48. The number of strikes occurring in U. S. firms has steadily increased over the past 25 years.

a. true

b. false

Q49. Suppose a perfectly competitive firm faces a labor market in which the going wage rate is $480 per week. If the last worker hired has a marginal physical product of 12 units of output per week, what is the selling price of the firm's output?

a. $40 per unit

b. $480 per unit

c. $240 per unit

d. $12 per unit

Q50. If workers in an industry become less productive due to low employee morale, we would expect the

a. demand for workers to decrease.

b. wages in the industry to increase.

c. supply of workers to increase.

d. demand for workers to increase.

ECO 304K Study Guide - Quiz Guide: Pareto Efficiency, Economic Surplus, Perfect Competition

ECO 304K Full Course Notes

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