Pharmacology 2060A/B Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Irinotecan, Critical Role, Hydrolysis

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3 Mar 2016

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Document Summary

Module 4 pharmacokinetics - metabolism. Therapeutic consequences of drug metabolism. Increase water solubility of drugs to promote their enzyme mediated alteration of a drugs structure. Liver primary site of drug metabolism. Intestine enterocytes that line the gut are able to metabolize drugs. Stomach a site for the metabolism of alcohol: kidney underappreciated as metabolic organ. Intestinal bacteria normal flora. Protection from a number of environmental toxins as well as synthesize essential endogenous molecules. Exogenous toxins wine, cigarettes, coffee, vegetables, red meat. Many consequences: excretion: lipophilic hydrophilic. Inactive drugs: active inactive. Increased drug effectiveness: active more active: activate prodrugs (prodrugs are inactive until metabolized): prodrug (inactive) active drug. Increase drug toxicity: non- toxic toxic. = concentration of drug is much lower than the metabolic capacity of the body. Concentration decreases faster when there are higher drug concentrations than at the end when the drug concentrations are low. Much more enzyme than there is drug, typical of 1st order.

Related Questions

Need help with biology questions:

1. To increase the excretion of an acidic drug, what would you do to the urine?

	A.	Make it more basic
	B.	None of the above
	C.	Make it neutral
	D.	Make it more acidic

2. G-Protein coupled receptors directly act on which of the following secondary messenger molecules:

	A.	cAMP
	B.	ATP
	C.	ADP
	D.	GTP
	E.	None of the above or more than one of the above

3. Drug A and Drug B both produce the same level of biological/physiological response. Drug A produces this effect with 100 mg/kg dose. Drug B produces this effect with 50 mg/kg dose. Which of the following is true?:

	A.	Drug B is more efficacious than Drug A. Both drugs are equally potent.
	B.	Drug A is more efficacious than Drug B. Both drugs are equally potent.
	C.	Drug A and B are equally efficacious. Drug A is more potent than Drug B.
	D.	Drug A and B are equally efficacious. Drug B is more potent than Drug A.

4. The stomach has a ______ pH, whereas the small intestines have a _______ pH. The colon has an approximately ___________ pH.

	A.	High; low; neutral
	B.	Low; high; neutral
	C.	Low; neutral; neutral
	D.	None of the above

5. Which receptor is most likely to reduce norepinephrine levels when activated?

	A.	alpha 2 adrenergic
	B.	alpha 1 adrenergic
	C.	dopamine D1 receptors

6. Which of the following statements are FALSE?

	A.	If the Vd of a drug is between 60 and 80 L the drug has likely distributed to the total body water of a 200 kg man.
	B.	In the enterohepatic system the activity of bacteria to remove conjugates from a drug in the gut will decrease the clearance of the drug.
	C.	Lipid drugs are more likely to be reabsorbed by the kidney from the urine.
	D.	A weak basic drug (pKa = 6) will be mostly ionized in urine of a pH= 3 and only the non- ionized drug will be eliminated.
	E.	The major conjugate in Phase 2 metabolism is glucuronide.

7. Isoproterenol (Î²-agonist) is a vasodilator that increases HR. What happens to systolic and diastolic pressures upon IV administration of isoproterenol?

	A.	â systolic; â diastolic
	B.	â systolic; â diastolic
	C.	â systolic; â diastolic
	D.	â systolic; â diastolic
	E.	None of the above

8. If you want to increase the blood concentration of a drug A, you can perform which of the following procedures:

	A.	Inhibit Drug A metabolism with Drug B
	B.	Enhance Drug A reabsorption from renal proximal tubule by changing ionization of Drug A with Drug B
	C.	Allow competition of Drug B with Drug A for active renal secretion processes
	D.	Increase the binding of Drug A to serum albumin
	E.	All of the above

9. Which of the following describes Phase I metabolism?

	A.	Inactive products are always produced in this phase.
	B.	Large molecules such as glucuronic acid are conjugated to drugs in this phase.
	C.	This phase may produce active metabolites from prodrugs.
	D.	This phase only occurs in the liver.

10. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of biogenic amines?

	A.	Phenylethanolamine N-methyl Transferase
	B.	Dopamine Î²-hydroxylase
	C.	Tyrosine dehydroxylase
	D.	DOPA decarboxylase
	E.	All of the above

11. Why would an antibiotic at the same concentration be more active against bacteria in water than in serum or plasma? (Activity is measured in a test tube)

	A.	activity of the antibiotic is increased in water.
	B.	due to drug-protein interaction in serum
	C.	the antibiotic is more stable in water
	D.	all of the above
	E.	none of the above

12. Ion channels are targets for drugs. Which drug class targets Na+ channels?

	A.	Benzodiazepines
	B.	Beta blockers
	C.	Local anesthetics
	D.	Antihypertensive drugs (cardiac and smooth muscle)
	E.	Glibenclimide (diabetic drug)

13. _________________ not metabolized by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT).

	A.	Dopamine
	B.	Epinephrine
	C.	Phenylephrine
	D.	Norepinephrine
	E.	All of the above are metabolized by COMT.

Multiple Choice questions 2 points each

1. Creatinine clearance is a commonly used estimate of:

A)Glomerular filtration rate (mL/min)

B)Tubular secretion (mL/min)

C)Total renal blood flow (mL/min)

D)Renal reabsorption (cc/min)

E)Steady state muscle breakdown rate (mcg/min)

2. Which of the following is not a measure of exposure?

a) Peak concentration

b) Time of maximum concentration

c) Area under the concentration time curve

d) Concentration measured 2 hours after dose administration

3. A clinically impactful drug interaction based upon inhibition of cytochrome P450 is most likely when:

a)The drug is metabolized by multiple enzymes

b)The drug has a narrow therapeutic index

c)There is limited variation in interindividual enzyme activity in the involved enzyme

d)The drug is a substrate of P-glycoprotein

e)All of the above

2. Why are dose-response (or concentration-response) analyses recommended for drug approval by a regulatory agency?

a) To increase the potential for adverse reactions in clinical trials in order to fully characterize the safety profile

b) To prolong the length of time it takes for drug approval

c) To maximize the likelihood that optimal drug dose will be prescribed after approval

d) To reduce the costs of clinical trials

e) To explore all possible disease state indications at time of initial approval

5. Which of the following is true of inhaled delivery of an aerosolized drug suspension?

a)An ideal drug would have low first pass hepatic metabolism to maximize systemic absorption

b)In contrast to milled powders, drugs in suspension are dosed in partial pressures

c)Efficiency of drug delivery by multi-dose inhalers is highly dependent upon patient technique

d)Typical multi-dose inhalers produce a very homogenous particle size of drug

e)Nebulized delivery of drug by face mask is not appropriate for children, demented or obtunded patients

6. The apparent volume of distribution (Vd):

a)Does not represent an actual physiologic volume

b)Can never be higher than total body water volume

c)Can be determined using only the half life of a drug

d)Will be large in a drug that is highly bound to serum proteins

e)Is usually small in drugs that require a loading dose

7. Which of the following characteristics of a drug make it most amenable to removal by hemodialysis?

a)Large volume of distribution

b)Large molecular weight

c)Strong protein binding

d)Good water solubility

8. Which is the best predictor of need for dosage adjustment in hepatic disease?

Child Pugh score

Portal splanchnic pressure (as measured by peripheral heart rate)

Degree of fibrosis and shunt on ultrasound

Levels of liver function tests

There is no single marker of hepatic dysfunction

9. Fexofenadine is not metabolized but is a P-glycoprotein (Pgp) substrate. How does St. Johnâs Wort cause decreased serum fexofenadine levels?

Inhibition of gut Pgp

Induction of gut PgP

Induction of CNS Pgp

Inhibition of biliary Pgp

None of the above

10. Which of the following is the best measure of renal function?

a)age

b)random urine creatinine concentration

c)spot plasma creatinine concentration

d)estimated creatinine clearance (Cockroft Gault)

e)Child-Pugh

11. Which pharmacokinetic parameter is the best measure of total systematic drug exposure after an oral dose?

a)Cmax

b)Elimination half life

c)Absorption rate constant

d)Area under the curve

e)Clearance

12. Which of the following is a mechanism that would cause a drug to have zero order elimination in humans?

a)Ultra-metabolizer genotype

b)Enterohepatic recirculation

c)High serum protein binding

d)Saturation of the prime metabolic enzyme

e)Sustained release version of a drug

13. Phase II metabolic metabolism:

a)Involves the covalent binding of a polar side chain

B)Always follows phase 1 metabolism

c)Employs breaking of aromatic ring structures

d)Is not subject to pharmacogenetic variation

e)Occurs exclusively pre-systemically, in the gut lumen

14. Which is not a high profile FDA Initiative?

a)Orphan Disease Act

b)Childhood Vaccine Act

c)Rare Disease Act

d)Breakthrough Drug Designation

15 In explaining risk posed by pharmaceutical R&D, which is not a development risk:

a)Patient population

b)Clinical endpoint

c)Predictability of trials

d)Competitive advantage

16. The key pivotal trials undertaken as part of the IND are part of which phase of the clinical drug development process?

a)Phase I

b)Phase II

c)Phase III

d)Phase IV

17. Which is not an EU Regulatory Process

a)Centralized Procedure

b)Certificate of Pharmaceutical Product Procedure

c)De-Centralized Procedure

d)Mutual Recognition

18. The role of experimental medicine strategies is to

a)Explore disease and drug biology to support go/no go decisions

b)Generate and fully validate biomarkers for FDA approval

c)Primarily to co-develop diagnostic tests to be filed with the NDA (new drug application)

d)Harmonize FDA and EMA phase 1 requirements

e)Define the pharmacokinetics of exploratory drugs in healthy volunteers or selected patient populations

What are the correct answers to the parts of this quiz marked incorrect? (that is my one question. Please take your time. I value accuracy over speed. )

IncorrectQuestion 2

0 / 1 pts
Studies done by Buchner showed that ground-up yeast cells were able to convert sugar to alcohol. The components of the mixture that were responsible for this transformation were

DNA molecules.

enzymes.

lipids.

carbohydrates.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.01
Section: 06.01
Topic: History of Microbiology

IncorrectQuestion 3
0 / 1 pts
Bacteria that can absorb light energy and convert it into ATP are commonly called

cytochromes.

lysosomes.

chemotrophs.

phototrophs.

cytochromes AND chemotrophs.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.02
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 4
0 / 1 pts
The readily usable energy currency of cells is

electricity.

the electron transport system.

ATP.

CTP.

the electron transport system AND CTP.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.02
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 5
0 / 1 pts
NAD in its reduced form is symbolized as

NADH.

NAD.

NAD-.

NADP.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.03
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 6
0 / 1 pts
The most common starting pathway for the breakdown of sugars is

respiration.

fermentation.

glycolysis.

oxidation.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.04
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 7
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following processes generates the greatest amount of energy?

fermentation

aerobic respiration

the Entner-Duodoroff pathway

glycolysis

fermentation AND the Entner-Duodoroff pathway

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.05
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 8
0 / 1 pts
Fermentation

uses an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor.

uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor.

results in the production of a large amount of ATP.

is necessary in some organisms to produce reduced electron carriers.

uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor AND is necessary in some organisms to produce reduced electron carriers.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.05
Section: 06.01
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 9
0 / 1 pts
The use of the suffix "ase" on a word denotes a(n)

substrate.

product.

enzyme.

electron acceptor.

substrate AND electron acceptor.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.06
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 10
0 / 1 pts
Enzymes speed up reactions by

raising activation energy.

producing heat.

reducing entropy.

lowering activation energy.

raising activation energy AND reducing entropy.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.06
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 11
0 / 1 pts
Most enzymes

are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates.

are specialists and typically recognize a single substrate.

are active over a wide pH range.

have several active sites.

are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates AND have several active sites.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.06
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 12
0 / 1 pts
Allosteric enzymes

may bind two substrates.

are used to bind to other enzymes.

have an additional binding site that is involved in regulating enzyme activity.

are twice as fast as single site enzymes.

may bind two substrates AND are twice as fast as single site enzymes.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.09
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 13
1 / 1 pts
Feedback inhibition

is a means of regulating the amount of product produced.

often involves the use of allosteric enzymes.

involves inhibiting the last of a series of reactions.

results in raising the activation energy for the reaction.

is a means of regulating the amount of product produced AND often involves the use of allosteric enzymes.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.10
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 14
0 / 1 pts
Coenzymes are derivatives of

minerals.

proteins.

lipids.

vitamins.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.07
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 15
1 / 1 pts
Environmental factors that may affect enzyme activity include

temperature

pH

salt

age

temperature, pH AND salt

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.08
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 16
1 / 1 pts
Most enzymes function best at

acidic pH and high salt concentrations.

basic pH and low salt concentrations.

neutral pH and high salt concentrations.

slightly above pH 7 and low salt concentrations.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.08
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 17
1 / 1 pts
Mercury in mercurochrome inhibits growth

through competitive inhibition.

through a reversible action.

by oxidizing the sulfhydryl groups in cysteine.

by changing the shape of proteins.

by oxidizing the sulfhydryl groups in cysteine AND by changing the shape of proteins.

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 06.10
Section: 06.02
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 18
0 / 1 pts
The term precursor metabolite refers to molecules that

activate cell components.

are used in biosynthesis.

result from cell activities.

are present but inactive.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.11
Section: 06.03
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 19
0 / 1 pts
Glycolysis

requires oxygen.

produces 3 ATP molecules.

produces 4 molecules of NAD.

may occur under aerobic or anaerobic conditions.

produces 3 ATP molecules AND produces 4 molecules of NAD.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.12
Section: 06.03
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 20
0 / 1 pts
The transition step

links glycolysis to the pentose phosphate pathway.

links the pentose phosphate pathway to the Entner-Duodoroff pathway.

links glycolysis to the TCA cycle.

takes place in the matrix of the nucleus.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.11
Section: 06.03
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 21
1 / 1 pts
The TCA cycle produces

ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.

NADH.

FADH2.

precursor metabolites.

All of the choices are correct.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 06.12
Section: 06.03
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 22
1 / 1 pts
The electron transport system

requires a membrane.

utilizes the nuclear membrane of eukaryotes.

utilizes the mitochondrial membrane of prokaryotes.

generates a concentration gradient of protons.

requires a membrane AND generates a concentration gradient of protons.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.13
Section: 06.04
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

IncorrectQuestion 23
0 / 1 pts
Which type of phosphorylation does not require a membrane?

Substrate-level phosphorylation

Oxidative phosphorylation

Photophosphorylation

All types of phosphorylation require a membrane.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 06.13
Section: 06.04
Topic: Microbial Metabolism

Question 24
1 / 1 pts
Which pairing is incorrect?

A:T

G:C

A:U

A:G

Bloom's Level: 3. Apply
Learning Outcome: 07.01
Section: 07.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 25
1 / 1 pts
RNA is characterized by which one of the following features?

Deoxyribose.

Thymine.

Ribose.

Double-stranded.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.01
Section: 07.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 26
1 / 1 pts
DNA is characterized by which of the following feature(s)?

Ribose.

Single-stranded.

Deoxyribose.

Thymine.

Deoxyribose AND thymine.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.01
Section: 07.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 27
1 / 1 pts
Which of the following is/are true of DNA replication?

It starts at the origin of replication.

Nucleotides are added to the 3' end.

It requires an RNA primer to get started.

It utilizes polymerases.

All of the choices are true.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.03
Section: 07.02
Topic: Genetics

Question 28
1 / 1 pts
Which is true about the RNA transcript?

It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.

It has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand.

It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together.

The template starts at the promoter region.

It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it has the same 5'-3' orientation as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.04
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 29
0 / 1 pts
How many nucleotides are in a codon?

1

2

3

4

5

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.05
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

Question 30
1 / 1 pts
Which may be or is an RNA molecule?

AGCCTAC

GGGCCCA

GCCCUUA

AGCCTAC AND GGGCCCA

GGGCCCA AND GCCCUUA

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.01
Section: 07.01
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 31
0 / 1 pts
Which molecule carries an anticodon?

DNA

mRNA

rRNA

tRNA

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.05
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

Question 32
1 / 1 pts
AUG

is only used as the start codon.

codes for methionine.

determines the reading frame.

is one of the stop codons.

codes for methionine AND determines the reading frame.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.05
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 33
0 / 1 pts
The A-site

is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.

is found on the 30S ribosome.

is found on the 70S ribosome.

is the amino acid site.

is found on the 70S ribosome AND is the amino acid site.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.05
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 34
0 / 1 pts
A stop codon

codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.

forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

codes for no amino acid.

enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.

codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.05
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 35
0 / 1 pts
Some segments of the precursor mRNA in eukaryotes are non-coding and are called

exons.

introns.

integrans.

uselessans.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.06
Section: 07.04
Topic: Genetics

Question 36
1 / 1 pts
Gene regulation may entail

turning on genes only when needed.

turning off genes when not needed.

turning on or off entire groups of genes.

All of the choices are correct.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 37
0 / 1 pts
The set of genes in bacteria that are linked together and transcribed as a single unit is referred to as a(n)

operon.

regulon.

operator.

repressor.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 38
1 / 1 pts
The molecules that bind to a repressor and cause it to no longer bind to the operator are called

activators.

repressors.

introns.

inducers.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 39
1 / 1 pts
Repressors

are involved in negative control.

are involved in positive control.

always bind to the promoter.

bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).

are involved in negative control AND bind or do not bind to the operator depending on their shape (conformation).

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 40
1 / 1 pts
Activators

are involved in negative control.

are involved in positive control.

always bind to the promoter.

are allosteric proteins.

are involved in positive control AND are allosteric proteins.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 41
1 / 1 pts
Signal transduction

is the relay of information about conditions outside a cell to inside the cell.

often relies on a two component system.

may involve phosphorylation of various molecules.

is used by certain pathogens to sense low magnesium conditions.

All of the choices are correct.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.07
Section: 07.05
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 42
0 / 1 pts

Quorum sensing

is used by bacteria to sense the density of cells.

is used by bacteria to sense the proximity of eukaryotic cells

is used by bacteria to limit the density of cells.

is used by eukaryotes to sense the presence of bacteria.

does not influence the expression of genes by a bacteria.

Quorum sensingBloom's Level: 2. UnderstandLearning Outcome: 07.07Section: 07.05Topic: Genetics

Question 43
1 / 1 pts
In DNA sequence analysis

the + strand of DNA is used.

the start codon is ATG.

ORFs are searched for.

codon usage is a helpful indicator for protein coding areas.

All of the choices are correct.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.12
Section: 07.08
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 44
0 / 1 pts
DNA replication is usually unidirectional.

True

False

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.03
Section: 07.02
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 45
0 / 1 pts
There are 4 functional types of RNA.

True

False

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 07.04
Section: 07.03
Topic: Genetics

Question 46
1 / 1 pts
Antisense RNA is the complement of the plus strand and may be useful in inhibiting translation.

True

False

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.11
Section: 07.07
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 47
0 / 1 pts
A drug that inhibits the activity of bacterial DNA gyrase ______ be a good antibiotic because _______.

would; it would inhibit all DNA synthesis

would NOT; it would inhibit all DNA synthesis, even our own cell's DNA synthesis

would; it would selectively inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis due to differences between bacterial/human gyrase

would NOT; the DNA replication machinery could still function, even with impaired DNA gyrase enzyme

Bloom's Level: 5. Evaluate
Learning Outcome: 07.03
Section: 07.02
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 48
0 / 1 pts
The regulatory protein

binds to the promoter region of DNA.

may inhibit or enhance transcription.

may control translation of the operon.

affects the activity of the DNA polymerase.

binds to the promoter region of DNA AND affects the activity of the DNA polymerase.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 07.09
Section: 07.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 49
1 / 1 pts
The source of variation among microorganisms that were once identical is

antibiotic resistance.

virulence factors.

sigma factors.

mutation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.02
Section: 08.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 50
1 / 1 pts
The characteristics displayed by an organism in any given environment is its

genotype.

archaetype.

mutatotype.

phenotype.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.01
Section: 08.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 51
1 / 1 pts
Transposons

are informally known as jumping genes.

may cause insertion mutations.

may cause knockout mutations.

were first recognized in plants.

All of the choices are correct.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.05
Section: 08.02
Topic: Genetics

Question 52
1 / 1 pts
The largest group of chemical mutagens consists of

radiation.

base analogs.

nitrous acid.

alkylating agents.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.06
Section: 08.03
Topic: Genetics

Question 53
1 / 1 pts
Nitrous acid most frequently causes mutations by

substituting oxygen for hydrogen bonds.

converting keto groups to amino groups.

altering the bonding ratios of nitrogen bases.

converting cytosine to uracil.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.06
Section: 08.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 54
0 / 1 pts
Chemical mutagens that mimic the naturally occurring bases are called

nitrogen mustards.

alkylating agents.

base analogs.

nitrous oxide.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.06
Section: 08.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 55
0 / 1 pts
Irradiation of cells with ultraviolet light may cause

4 nucleotides to covalently bind together.

thymine dimers.

adenine complementary base pairing with cytosine.

the addition of uracil.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.08
Section: 08.03
Topic: Genetics

Question 56
1 / 1 pts
Thymine dimers are dealt with by

no repair mechanisms.

photoreactivation repair.

SOS repair.

excision repair.

photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.11
Section: 08.04
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 57
0 / 1 pts
X-rays

have no effect on DNA.

cause thymine trimers.

cause single and double strand breaks in DNA molecules.

make the DNA radioactive.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.08
Section: 08.03
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 58
0 / 1 pts
DNA repair mechanisms occur

only in prokaryotes.

only in eukaryotes.

in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

in neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.09
Section: 08.04
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 59
0 / 1 pts
Antibiotics

cause mutations to occur.

may act as alkylating mutagens.

provide an environment in which pre-existing mutants survive.

increase the rate of spontaneous mutation.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.12
Section: 08.05
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 60
0 / 1 pts
Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic chromosome is

diploid.

polyploid.

haploid.

polysomal.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.02
Section: 08.01
Topic: Genetics

Question 61
1 / 1 pts
The diploid character of eukaryotic cells may mask the appearance of a mutation since

this may be a frame shift.

the mutation is often reversible.

the mutation may be palindromic.

the matching chromosome may carry the dominant gene.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.02
Section: 08.01
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 62
0 / 1 pts
A clever technique that streamlines the identification of auxotrophic mutants is

gas chromatography.

replica plating.

direct selection.

reversion.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.12
Section: 08.05
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 63
0 / 1 pts
To increase the proportion of mutants in a population of bacteria one may use

direct selection.

replica plating.

penicillin enrichment.

individual transfer.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.12
Section: 08.05
Topic: Genetics

Question 64
1 / 1 pts
Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of

UV light.

SOS repair.

frame shift mutations.

genetic recombination.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.13
Section: 08.06
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 65
0 / 1 pts
The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called

ellipsis.

replica plating.

transformation.

transduction.

conjugation.

Bloom's Level: 1. Remember
Learning Outcome: 08.14
Section: 08.07
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 66
0 / 1 pts
In conjugation the donor cell is recognized by the presence of

an F plasmid.

a Y chromosome.

diploid chromosomes.

an SOS response.

an F plasmid AND diploid chromosomes.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.15
Section: 08.08
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 67
0 / 1 pts
Gene transfer that requires cell-to-cell contact is

transformation.

competency.

conjugation.

functional genomics.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.15
Section: 08.08
Topic: Genetics

Question 68
1 / 1 pts
The transfer of vancomycin resistance from Enterococcus faecalis to Staphylococcus aureus is thought to have involved

conjugation.

transformation.

transduction.

transposons.

conjugation AND transposons.

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.17
Section: 08.09
Topic: Genetics

IncorrectQuestion 69
0 / 1 pts
Double-stranded DNA enters the recipient cell during transformation.

True

False

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.13
Section: 08.06
Topic: Genetics

Question 70
1 / 1 pts
Plasmids often carry the information for antibiotic resistance.

True

False

Bloom's Level: 2. Understand
Learning Outcome: 08.16
Section: 08.09
Topic: Genetics

Quiz Score: 31 out of 70

Pharmacology 2060A/B Lecture Notes - Lecture 4: Irinotecan, Critical Role, Hydrolysis

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