ADMS 3930 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: Profit Sharing, Strategos, Team Building

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mag0sea

13 Feb 2017

School

York University

Department

Administrative Studies

Course

ADMS 3930

Professor

Martin Stephanie

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Document Summary

Cessna has an opportunity to redesign its production facilities and you want to move to using teams. Teams may provide increased quality, faster, more efficient production, and higher employee satisfaction. Teams are expensive to implement, require significant training, and they work only a third of the time they are used. Can be trained to meet the needs of specific customer groups. The good and bad of using teams. The job requires people to work together. Teams have required authority to get the job done. The job can be done by individuals independently. Management will monitor and control the work. Autonomy, discretion that workers have over work, varies from low to high across types of groups: After reading the next two sections, you should be able to: understand the general characteristics of work teams, explain how to enhance work team effectiveness. Informally agreed-on standards that regulate team behaviour.

Related Questions

PROVIDE A RESPONSE OR STATEMENT TO THIS STUDENTS DISCUSSION:

1 - Please share your experience on selecting a managed care plan. Please discuss the advantages and disadvantages of your MCO plan.

Up until about ten years ago my company offered an HMO MCO plan option managed by Kaiser Permanente. This plan was less expensive in my paycheck deduction and offered $10 co-pays for every office visit and 100% hospitalization. In 1992 as a single young man in my twenties I found this option very attractive. I ended up getting married early that year, had a flu episode and a bout of food poisoning. My wife ended up with a hospitalization as well. What looked good on paper ended up being a very restricted healthcare experience. My office visits were restricted to only one clinic where the health care professional point of contact were physicians assistants under the supervision of an MD which we never saw. All of the prescriptions were for generic medicines and when my wife was hospitalized she was not allowed branded medicines either. We also thought she was discharged too early. The advantages of this type of plan are costs and simplicity. If we had not been sick that year we probably would have signed back up for it. The disadvantages were that our level of care was reduced to a less skilled health care professional and the attending physician who cared for my wife in the hospital discharged my wife early due to a time limit the HMO had placed on the length of stay for her illness code. That was the first and last year I chose an MCO plan for my health coverage.

2 - Many argue that there is no consistent, direct correlation between the cost of care and its quality in a managed care program. Do you agree or disagree?

In my personal experience managed care plans attempt to lower the primary care contact to non MD health care professionals such as Nurse Practioners and Physicians Assistants. While these clinicians are well trained and certainly have their appropriate place in medicine, they do not have the extensive medical training that MDs and DOs spend a minimum of 8 years mastering. These clinicians cost less than MDs and are very attractive way to reduce staffing costs. As a patient however I prefer the highest skilled level clinician caring for me and my family and am willing to pay more for this higher level of care. In my opinion Kaiser Permanente may have saved money but I was not happy with the level of care and medicines provided. They may have saved money that year but they lost me as a customer. Epstein et al, (2014) compared Accountable Care Organization (ACO) patients with non ACO patients and while they found that there were many differences in spending, age, and severity of illness, there was no difference in quality metrics despite non ACO members costing more overall. It would seem that in this example costs can be lowered without affecting quality outcomes. However ACO participants had access to significantly more participating clinicians and hospitals. What is missing from this study is a patient survey comparing the satisfaction of ACO and non-ACO patients.

3 - Do you think patients' choice of provider and access to care will be limited under ACOs?

In my personal experience and through observations of managed care offices and hospitals as a pharmaceutical representative, ACOs not only restrict the choice of provider and access to hospitals they utilize lesser trained medical professionals in Primary Care, Specialty and Hospitals in addition to restricting access to branded medications. This observation is in agreement with Epstein et al, (2014) in which ACO members cost less but had less access and choice of participating access points and clinicians.

4 - In what ways can an ACO succeed in both delivering high-quality care and spending health care dollars more wisely?

ACOs can be very useful in curbing costs. For those with limited health care budgets or those patients who receive public assistance an ACO model whether public or private. However Lewis et al, (2014) found that even though there was an almost even split between ACOs contracting for private and public contracts in the U.S.A., public contracts were less profitable than private ones due to public patients costing more to manage per capita than private ones. Quality was not examined. It would seem that an ACO would be ideal when faced with limited resources but ACOs may be reluctant to engage in contracts that are less profitable.

Q3. The assumption of rational self-interest implies that people will choose to enrich themselves even if doing so violates the rights or property of others.

a. true

b. false

Q4. If you can earn $10 an hour as a retail clerk, $12 an hour as an office assistant, $16 an hour as a house painter, and $20 an hour repairing bicycles, what is your opportunity cost of working to repair bicycles?

a. $12 an hour

b. $10 an hour

c. $20 an hour

d. $16 an hour

Q5. In the graph of a production possibilities curve, both the horizontal and vertical axes measure the annual quantities of goods produced.

a. true

b. false

Q6. Scarcity arises because

a. international companies are slow to explore for new resources.

b. resources are finite and unable to meet all human wants and needs.

c. many countries waste goods because of inefficient political systems.

d. import taxes retard production.

Q7. A production possibilities curve with clothing and food on the axes shows which of the following?

I. A society cannot have an unlimited amount of each good.

II. For an efficient society, an increase in clothing production will necessitate a decrease in food production.

III. A society will always produce the maximum amount of both clothing and food.

a. II only

b. I only

c. III only

d. both I and II

Q8. All points on the production possibilities curve are efficient.

a. true

b. false

Q9. Economic growth can be pictured in a production possibilities curve diagram by

a. shifting the production possibilities curve out.

b. moving from right to left along the curve.

c. moving from left to right along the curve.

d. shifting the production possibilities curve in.

Q10. Suppose the current unemployment rate is 15 percent. If it rises to 20 percent,

a. the production possibilities curve will shift inward.

b. the economy will move closer to the production possibilities curve.

c. the economy will operate further inside the production possibilities curve.

d. the economy will move up along the production possibilities curve.

Q11. Clean air is a scarce resource.

a. true

b. false

Q12. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A good is anything that gives satisfaction or happiness to individuals.

b. Wants may include humanitarian and altruistic goals.

c. Wants are unlimited and include all material and nonmaterial desires.

d. Economic goods are available in desired quantities at a zero price.

Q13. The current size of the U.S. labor force is less than 100 million workers.

a. true

b. false

Q14. The factors of production are

a. never as useful as people expect them to be.

b. valuable only because they are owned by corporations seeking to make a profit from them.

c. scarce resources.

d. abundant without limit on the planet.

Q15. Why do firms seek to use the least-cost combination of inputs?

a. because they won't be able to stay in business if they don't

b. because that is the combination that their employees prefer

c. because managers and supervisors find their jobs are easiest when the least-cost combination is used

d. because they want to keep costs low in order to appear to the media as a well-run business

Q16. Which one of the following best describes how economists view prices?

a. Low prices are good; high prices are bad.

b. High prices are good; low prices are bad.

c. The best price is a fair price.

d. Prices are signals of relative scarcity.

Q17. The person who creates a product innovation and brings it to market is providing the resource of

a. labor.

b. land.

c. entrepreneurship.

d. capital.

Q18. Gifts of nature used in the production process are considered

a. entrepreneurship.

b. labor.

c. land.

d. capital.

Q19. In a free market economy,

a. government decides what is produced, and producers decide who gets to consume it.

b. as a good becomes relatively more scarce, its price declines.

c. firms choose only to produce the most fashionable goods, regardless of the cost of production.

d. goods and services are allocated by a price system.

Q20. Resources are also known as

a. stocks, bonds, and other financial instruments.

b. minerals.

c. factors of production.

d. factories.

Q21. The size of the U.S. labor force has declined over the past 20 years as many jobs have been outsourced from the United States to other countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. The growth of the U.S. population over the next several decades will come from immigration.

b. Population growth makes a country poorer, because there are more mouths to feed.

c. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is inflation.

d. Real per capita GDP can increase only if there is no inflation.

Q23. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. The U.S. labor force will continue to grow through immigration.

b. Inflation stops economic growth.

c. Increased availability of reliable communication channels at lower and lower costs have led to companies relocating their manufacturing operations offshore.

d. The size of the U.S. labor force continues to grow despite many jobs being moved off-shore.

Q24. What is the purpose of a market system?

a. to facilitate efficient exchange

b. to encourage consumers to buy goods on credit

c. to ensure an equal distribution of income

d. to ensure that everyone is treated fairly

Q25. The market system is also called the price system because

a. people pay money in markets.

b. everything has a price tag.

c. rising prices are the signal to producers to make more of a particular good.

d. inflation is a disturbing problem.

Q26. Production refers to

a. any activity that causes a material conversion of an object.

b. any activity that results in the conversion of resources into goods and services that can be consumed.

c. any activity carried on by a firm, whether a corporation, partnership, or sole proprietorship.

d. physically producing material goods only.

Q27. An increase in the price of coffee, holding other things constant, will

a. decrease the demand for coffee.

b. increase the demand for coffee.

c. decrease the quantity of coffee demanded.

d. decrease the supply of coffee.

Q28. The supply curve shifts when the firm experiences a change in its production technology.

a. true

b. false

Q29. A surplus results when the quantity supplied exceeds the quantity demanded.

a. true

b. false

Q30. Table 3.1

Price per Constant-Quality Unit Quantity Demanded of Constant-Quality Units per Year Quantity Supplied of Constant-Quality Units per Year

$1.00 1,000 200

2.00 800 400

3.00 600 600

4.00 400 800

5.00 200 1,000

What condition characterizes a surplus?

a. Quantity supplied exceeds quantity demanded.

b. Quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied.

c. Consumers are unhappy with the price.

d. Producers are unhappy with the price.

Q31. An increase in quantity demanded is caused by

a. an increase in income.

b. a decrease in the price of a complement.

c. a change in expectations about price in the future.

d. a decrease in the price of the good.

Q32. The demand curve is downward sloping because

a. price and quantity have a direct relationship.

b. price is always constant.

c. demand is based on supply.

d. price and quantity have an inverse relationship.

Q33. An increase in the price of one good will decrease the demand for a substitute good.

a. true

b. false

Q34. The market demand curve is the vertical summation of the demand curves of all the individuals in the market.

a. true

b. false

Q35. The equilibrium price of a good is a price that everyone is happy with.

a. true

b. false

Q36. Which one of the following would cause a rightward shift of the supply curve?

a. A new tax is imposed on production of the good.

b. Some firms that have been producing the good go out of business.

c. Firms producing the good find ways of lowering their production costs.

d. There is an increase in demand for the good.

Q37. Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a. cost of production

b. number of suppliers

c. technology of production

d. income

Q38. The market demand curve for a particular good

a. will not be affected by any of the determinants of individual demand.

b. is the horizontal sum of each individual demand curve for the good.

c. will show a direct relationship between price and quantity demanded.

d. may be less than an individual demand curve for the good.

Q39. Table 4.4

Quantity of CDs Purchased Total Utility Marginal Utility

1 75

2 135

3 185

4 35

5 25

6 15

According to Table 4.4, what is the total utility when six CDs are purchased?

a. 65

b. 260

c. 120

d. 220

Q40. A rational consumer will never purchase a product when its

a. marginal utility is decreasing.

b. total utility is decreasing.

c. marginal utility is slightly positive.

d. marginal utility is negative.

Q41. The price elasticity of demand becomes relatively greater as more substitutes are easily available.

a. true

b. false

Q42. Which of the following statements is true with respect to total utility and marginal utility?

a. Marginal utility is always equal to total utility.

b. Total utility will always be negative when marginal utility is positive.

c. Total utility is minimized when marginal utility is zero.

d. Marginal utility can decline as total utility rises.

Q43. Table 4.3

Quantityof Soda Marginal Utility of Soda Quantityof Pizza Marginal Utility of Pizza

1 50 1 100

2 25 2 80

3 0 3 60

4 -25 4 40

After consuming what quantity of soda does the consumer in Table 4.3 experience diminishing marginal utility?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 1

d. 4

Q44. If the price elasticity of demand is 0.5, a 10 percent increase in the price will cause

a. the quantity demanded to decrease by 20 percent.

b. the quantity demanded to decrease by 50 percent.

c. the quantity demanded to increase by 50 percent.

d. the quantity demanded to decrease by 5 percent.

Q45. Which one of the following would make the demand for satellite subscription TV relatively less elastic?

a. The cost of administering the satellite service is lowered.

b. Cable TV service becomes less widely available.

c. Other networks of wireless entertainment become more widely available.

d. The cost of transmitting satellite signals is lowered.

Q46. A price increase will cause a relatively large drop in quantity demanded when

a. demand is perfectly inelastic.

b. the price elasticity of demand is 0.

c. there is very little time allowed for consumers to react.

d. the consumer has easy access to a number of substitute goods.

Q47. Table 4.6

Price Quantity Demanded

$20 90

$16 110

$12 130

$ 8 150

According to the data in Table 4.6, what is the elasticity of demand between a price of $20 and a price of $16?

a. 0.60

b. 0.75

c. 0.90

d. 1.25

Q48. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness

a. of the quantity demanded to changes in supply.

b. of the quantity demanded to changes in income.

c. of the quantity demanded to changes in price.

d. of the quantity demanded to changes in quantity.

Q49. Everyone who views the latest adventure movie in theaters will derive the same utility from seeing it.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The law of diminishing marginal utility asserts that total utility becomes negative when marginal utility begins to diminish.

a. true

b. false

Starbucks Value Chain From Bean to Cup to You.

The steaming cup of coffee placed in a customerâs hand at any Starbucks store location starts as coffee beans (berries) plucked from fields of coffee plants. From harvest to storage to roasting to retail to cup. Starbucks understands the important role each value chain participant plays.

Starbucks offers a selection of coffees from around the world, and its coffee buyers personally travel to the coffee Âgrowing regions of Latin America, Africa/Arabia, and Asia/Pacific to select and purchase the highestÂ quality Arabica beans. Once the beans arrive at any one of its five roasting facilities (in Washington, Pennsylvania, Nevada, South Carolina, or Amsterdam), Starbucksâ master professional roasters do their âmagicâ in creating the companyâs rich signature roast coffees. There are many potential challenges in âtransformingâ the raw material into the quality product and experience that customers expect at Starbucks - weather, shipping and logistics, technology, political instability, and so forth. All could potentially affect the company. Although those operations management challenges are significant, the most challenging issue facing Starbucks today is balancing its vision of the uniquely Starbucksâ coffee experience with the realities of selling a $4 latte in todayâs world. Starbucks products have become an unaffordable luxury for many. As revenues and profits declined during the economic downturn, CEO Howard Schultz realized that âthe company needed to change almost everything about how it operates.â Although it built its business as âthe antiÂ- fast Âfood joint,â the recession and growing competition forced Starbucks to become more streamlined. Under one new initiative put into effect at its U.S. stores, employee time wasters such as bending over to scoop coffee from below the counter, idly standing by waiting for expired coffee to drain, or dawdling at the pastry case were discouraged. Instead, employees were to keep busy doing something, such as helping customers or cleaning. At one of the first stores to implement the âleanâ techniques, the store manager looked for ways for her employees to be more efficient with simple things like keeping items in the same place, moving drink toppings closer to where drinks are handed to customers, and altering the order of assembly. After two months under the new methods, her store experienced a 10 percent increase in transactions.

Another thing that Schultz did that was quite unprecedented was to close every one of its stores for three hours on one Tuesday evening to train ALL of their some 135,000 baristas (a barista is a person who prepares and serves espresso based coffee drinks. During that training, baristas were reminded that they played an important role in creating not only a fabulous product but a fabulous customer experience. Despite warnings that closing the stores would be a public relations nightmare and a financial mistake, the decision seemed to be a sound one. In the weeks following the retraining, quality scores for the companyâs beverages went up and stayed there.

1. Would you describe production/operations technology in Starbucks retail stores as unit, mass, or process? Explain your choice. (Hint: You may need to review this material found in Chapter 6.) How does its production/operations technology approach affect the way products are produced?

2. What uncertainties does Starbucks face in its value chain? Can Starbucks manage those uncertainties? If so, how? If not, why not?

3. Go to the companyâs Web site at www.starbucks.com and find the information on the companyâs environmental activities from bean to cup. Select one of the steps in the chain (or your professor may assign one). Describe what environmental actions itâs taking. How might these affect the way Starbucks âproducesâ its products?

4. Research the concept of lean organizations. What benefits does âleanâ offer? How might a business like Starbucks further utilize the concepts of being lean?

5. What lessons could other organizations learn from Starbucksâ actions?

ADMS 3930 Lecture Notes - Lecture 12: Profit Sharing, Strategos, Team Building

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