ECON 2000 Lecture Notes - Lecture 52: Money Supply, Monetary Transmission Mechanism
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QUESTION 46
When the Fed buys a U.S. bond in the open market
its action has no effect on the total reserves or the money supply because the check it writes increases reserves at one bank but they fall at another. | ||
its action expands total reserves and the money supply. | ||
its action contracts total reserves and the money supply. | ||
total reserves increase by the amount of the purchase but the money supply stays the same. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 47
When the Fed sells government securities,
reserves increase, leading to a decrease in the money supply by an amount more than the sale of the government securities. | ||
reserves decrease, leading to a decrease in the money supply by an amount more than the sale of the government securities. | ||
reserves increase, leading to a increase in the money supply by an amount more than the sale of the government securities. | ||
reserves decrease, leading to a increase in the money supply by an amount more than the sale of the government securities. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 48
The maximum potential money multiplier is equal to
the reserve ratio. | ||
one minus the reserve ratio | ||
the inverse of the required reserve ratio. | ||
the number of dollars on reserve. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 49
The potential money multiplier gives us
the growth in the money supply when income increases. | ||
the growth in real national income when the money supply increases. | ||
the maximum potential change in the money supply due to a change in income. | ||
the maximum potential change in the money supply due to a change in reserves. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 50
An increase in the reserve ratio
increases the money multiplier. | ||
will cause banks to make more loans. | ||
has an expansionary effect on the money supply. | ||
has a contractionary effect on the money supply. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 51
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation insures
banks against lawsuits. | ||
the deposits held in member banks. | ||
the deposits held in the Fed. | ||
the federal funds market. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 52
Bank runs are a possibility because
in difficult times people want currency instead of demand deposits. | ||
the FDIC is inefficient. | ||
banks do not keep enough reserves to cover all their depository liabilities. | ||
bankers are often poor businesspeople. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 53
The manner in which FDIC deposit insurance is set up in the United States encourages banks to
make riskier loans than they otherwise would. | ||
reject some loans that probably would be profitable. | ||
maintain excess reserves that are too great. | ||
be too conservative in their lending practices. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 54
The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
discourages banks from engaging in excessive risk taking. | ||
was established after the Panic of 1907. | ||
only insures deposits in money-center banks. | ||
increases the stability of the banking system by reducing the likelihood of bank runs. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 55
What are the two features of money that distinguish it from all other goods in the economy?
Money is government issued and it is redeemable for gold or silver. | ||
Money is part of every barter transaction and it is divisible. | ||
Money is accepted as a medium of exchange and it is the common unit of account used to express prices. | ||
Money is a common unit of account and it is also can be traded for other currencies at a guaranteed exchange rate. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 56
Holding money to meet unplanned expenditures and emergencies is known as
asset demand. | ||
precautionary demand. | ||
aggregate demand. | ||
transactions demand. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 57
When people want to hold money to make regular planned expenditures, this is
the transaction demand for money. | ||
the spending demand for money. | ||
the asset demand for money. | ||
the precautionary demand for money. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 58
When interest rates rise, the transactions demand for money usually
decreases. | ||
increases. | ||
decreases initially and then increases to the original position. | ||
does not change. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 59
As nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) rises, the transactions demand for money
increases, and the money demand curve shifts to the right. | ||
remains constant, and the money demand curve remains the same. | ||
decreases, and the money demand curve shifts to the left. | ||
increases, and the money demand curve shifts to the left. |
1.11 points
QUESTION 60
One of the economic costs of holding currency is that
it fulfills no precautionary role. | ||
it fulfills no transactions role. | ||
it earns no interest income. | ||
its real value always increases. |
Q1. The total resource cost of goods and services produced by the U. S. economy is known as a. real GDP b. personal income c. national wealth d. national income Q2. The difference between GDP and final sales equals a. depreciation b. exports c. imports d. net inventory change Q3. Current disposable income can be adjusted for price changes and population changes to yield real per capita disposable income. a. true b. false Q4. If a lawn service mows your grass, it is included in the GDP. a. true b. false Q5. In national income accounting, grain fed to a hog at a commercial hog farm is considered a(n) a. final good b. intermediate good c. consumer good d. capital consumption allowance Q6. Imports constitute a minus figure in national income accounting. a. true b. false Q7. The total value added in the production of a final good a. exceeds the price of the final good b. equals the price of the final good c. exceeds the total payments made to owners of productive resources used in the production d. both (b) and (c) Q8. The GDP is reported on a monthly basis by the Department of Commerce. a. true b. false Q9. Transfer payments are added to NI in the process of determining personal income. a. true b. false Q10. U.S. gross domestic product is converted to U.S. gross national product by a. adding the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries b. subtracting the value of output produced by U.S.-owned resources in foreign countries c. subtracting the value of output produced in the United States by foreign-owned resources d. both (a) and (c) Q11. Final sales are always larger than the GDP. a. true b. false Q12. Because of the value of things produced inside households, (building your own desk, mowing your own lawn, etc.) a. the GDP value is automatically adjusted upward to reflect this b. the GDP value is automatically adjusted downward to reflect this c. Official GDP is surely smaller than true total output d. Official GDP is surely larger than true total output Q13. A government surplus may trigger a decline in the money supply. a. true b. false Q14. Real wages are determined by multiplying money wages by the CPI. a. true b. false Q15. The more volatile the inflation rate, the weaker the money supply as a standard of deferred payment. a. true b. false Q16. An increase in the money supply always causes an increase in the price level. a. true b. false Q17. Your nominal wages rose during the same period from $200 a week to $260. By how much did your real income rise? a. 30 percent b. 16.7 percent c. 8.33 percent d. 12 percent Q18. In the past 10 years or so, average real wages of U.S. workers in nonagricultural industries have a. increased about 40 percent b. increased slightly c. remained about the same d. declined Q19. If a new cash deposit creates excess reserves of $5,000 and the required reserve ratio is 10 percent, the banking system can increase the money supply by a maximum of a. $50,000 b. $500 c. $5,000 d. $4,500 Q20. The effect of a change in the money supply on economic activity may be offset by a change in velocity. a. true b. false Q21. The current base period for the CPI is a. 1967 b. 1977 c. 1982â1984 d. 1990 Q22. In the circular flow, an increase in the money supply tends to result when a. planned I equals planned S b. planned I is less than planned S c. planned I is greater than planned S d. there is a surplus government budget Q23. COLA is a form of indexation. a. true b. false Q24. The total checkable deposits a bank may have can be determined by dividing its reserves by the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q25. The Financial Services Modernization Act a. reinforced the Glass Steagall Act b. prevented mergers of banks c. eliminated barriers between banks, brokerage houses, and insurance companies d. eliminated all banking regulations Q26. Each Federal Reserve Bank has its own board of directors. a. true b. false Q27. The most frequently used tool of U.S. monetary policy is a. the discount rate b. the reserve requirement c. open-market operations d. moral suasion Q28. When the Fed conducts open-market operations, it primarily uses a. Treasury bills b. long-term U.S. government bonds c. bonds of publicly traded corporations d. overnight loans of major banks Q29. The Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System has a. 6 members b. 7 members c. 1 member from each Federal Reserve Bank d. 20 members Q30. If the Fed desires to increase checkable deposits, it may lower the reserve requirement. a. true b. false Q31. The interest rate at which banks borrow excess reserves from each other is known as the a. prime rate b. federal funds rate c. discount rate d. T-bill rate Q32. If member banks need to borrow reserves, they must do so through the discount window. a. true b. false Q33. The Fed Chairman appears before Congress semi-annually to present the Monetary Policy Report. a. true b. false Q34. In terms of the total number of payments, which of the following comprises the largest share? a. cash b. personal checks c. debit cards d. credit cards Q35. By buying government securities, the Federal Open Market Committee adds to member banks' reserves. a. true b. false Q36. More than 50 percent of commercial banks in the United States belong to the Federal Reserve System. a. true b. false Q37. The Federal Reserve System is built around a. 4 regional banks b. 6 regional banks c. 12 district banks d. 1 bank with several branches Q38. The time lags lead monetarists to contend that monetary policy is counterproductive. a. true b. false Q39. The marginal propensity to consume is a. the fraction of an increase in income that would be spent on consumer goods b. the additional desire people have for consumer goods c. the fraction of a person's total income normally spent for consumer goods d. the change in consumption resulting from a $1 change in the price level Q40. The consumption function shows a. how fast the economy is consuming its capital b. that the amount of national income determines the rate at which the economy consumes its resources c. that households' incomes determine how much the households will spend for consumer goods d. the rate at which people actually use up their consumer goods Q41. In the simple Keynesian model, if output exceeds aggregate expenditures, a. there will be no response from businesses b. inventories will decrease and businesses will increase output c. inventories will increase and businesses will increase output d. inventories will increase and businesses will decrease output Q42. If planned construction investment increases by $30 billion and the MPC is two-thirds, total output will increase by a. $30 billion b. $20 billion c. $45 billion d. $90 billion Q43. "A given change in business investment will cause a larger change in equilibrium output." This statement describes an important Keynesian concept called the a. multiplier effect b. marginal propensity to consume c. marginal propensity to invest d. consumption function Q44. In the multiplier formula, 1/MPS equals the multiplier. a. true b. false Q45. The classical economists held that chronic unemployment was likely. a. true b. false Q46. As income increases, the absolute level of planned consumption will increase. a. true b. false Q47. The new classical school contends that government fiscal policy is better than monetary policy in controlling inflation. a. true b. false Q48. Higher price levels are associated with lower aggregate expenditure at every level of income. a. true b. false Q49. Any time that planned leakages exceed planned injections, the economy will expand. a. true b. false Q50. According to the Keynesian model, increased foreign spending for U.S. goods is likely to a. reduce total employment in the United States b. increase total employment in the foreign country c. reduce total output in the United States d. increase total output in the United States |