ECON 3430 Lecture Notes - Lecture 17: Controllability, Monetary Base, Dynamic Inconsistency

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mag0sea

14 Apr 2017

School

York University

Department

Economics

Course

ECON 3430

Professor

Brenda Spotton- Visano

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Document Summary

The conduct of monetary policy: strategy and tactics. Policy makers aware of the social and economic costs of inflation. Goal of monetary policy is increasingly views as low and stable inflation, which is what central bankers define as price stability. A nominal variable such as the inflation rate or the money supply, which ties down the price level to achieve price stability. A subtle reason for a nominal anchor"s importance is that it can limit the time- inconsistency problem. Monetary policymakers tempted to pursue a discretionary monetary policy that is more expansionary to boost economic output (or lower unemployment) in the short run. Workers and firms raise their expectations about inflation, driving wages and prices up. Rise in wages and prices will lead to higher inflation, but will not result in higher output. Five other goals are continually mentioned by central bank officials when they discuss the objectives of monetary policy: high employment and output stability.

Related Questions

In a speech in 2017, Fed Chair Janet Yellen described the long-run federal funds rate that is consistent with achieving the Fed's mandate of high employment and price stability as the "neutral rate," which she estimates to be about 3 percent. Yellen noted that: "Waiting too long to begin moving toward the neutral rate could risk a nasty surprise down the road long dash either too much inflation, financial instability, or both. In that scenario, we could be forced to raise interest rates rapidly, which in turn could push the economy into a new recession."

Source: Janet Yellen, "The Goals of Monetary Policy and How We Pursue Them," Speech at the Commonwealth Club, San Francisco, California, January 18, 2017.

Why is it potentially a problem for the Fed to "wait too long" to raise its target for the federal funds rate? Can't the Fed just wait until inflation increases and begin to slowly increase the target at that time?

A. Monetary policy works with a lag that can be up to 18 months.

B. Prices change slowly due to menu costs.

C. Legislation takes time to implement.

D. Consumers are irrational.

Why might interest rates that are too low lead to financial instability?

A. Interest rates that are too low could result in higher unemployment.

B. Rates that are too low could lead to speculative bubbles in stocks and other financial assets.

C. Low-interest rates could lead to deflation.

D. Rates that are too low could lead to a situation of hyperinflation.

Why might the Fed rapidly increasing its target for the federal funds rate push the economy into recession?

A. In this situation, increasing the target for the federal funds rate increases aggregate demand by increasing investment.

B.A rapidly increasing federal funds rate target would decrease employment by lowering wages.

C.The Fed rapidly increasing its federal funds' rate target increases unemployment by increasing net exports.

D.Increasing the target for the federal funds rate decreases GDP by reducing consumption.

ochrecicada645

Which of the following statements has been proposed as a benefit of passive policy making?

		Passive policy making utilizes the rational expectations hypothesis.
		Passive policy making allows for making immediate changes in response to an anticipated change in economic performance.
		When using passive policy making there is no tradeoff between price stability and unemployment.
		Passive policy making does not wait for the time lag between recognition of a problem and policy action before engaging in economic policies to stabilize the economy.

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QUESTION 6

The idea of policy making taking place in response to a predetermined set of rules is referred to as

		discretionary policy making.
		passive policy making.
		Keynesianism.
		active policy making.

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QUESTION 7

What types of unemployment will still exist when the economy is at the natural rate of unemployment?

		frictional and cyclical unemployment only
		frictional, structural, and cyclical unemployment
		frictional and structural unemployment only
		structural and cyclical unemployment only

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QUESTION 8

The natural rate of unemployment is

		the unemployment rate that exists in long-run equilibrium, after adjustments to all changes have occurred.
		the unemployment rate when there is no structural unemployment.
		the unemployment rate when there is no structural or cyclical unemployment.
		zero.

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QUESTION 9

According to the text, minimum-wage laws cause increases in

		employment possibilities.
		structural unemployment.
		poverty.
		productivity.

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QUESTION 10

During a recession, the overall unemployment rate

		exceeds the natural rate of unemployment.
		falls below the natural rate of unemployment.
		falls rapidly.
		equals the inflation rate.

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QUESTION 11

Cyclical unemployment is

		the unemployment due to the unemployment benefits and welfare programs of the government.
		the unemployment due to union activities and government-imposed restrictions to entry into specific occupations.
		the difference between the actual unemployment rate and the natural rate of unemployment.
		the difference between the unemployment rate when the economy is in a recession and the unemployment rate when the economy is at the peak of an expansion.

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QUESTION 12

Which of the following unemployment rates can be negative?

		the natural unemployment rate
		the seasonal unemployment rate
		the official unemployment rate reported by the Bureau of Labor Statistics
		the cyclical unemployment rate

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QUESTION 13

An unexpected increase in aggregate demand typically causes

		the price level to increase but has no effect on the unemployment rate.
		frictional unemployment to increase but structural unemployment to decrease.
		the price level to increase and the unemployment rate to fall.
		the price level to increase and the unemployment rate to increase.

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QUESTION 14

The rate of unemployment below which the rate of inflation tends to rise and above which the rate of inflation tends to fall is known as the

		non-accelerating-inflation rate of unemployment (NAIRU).
		contrary rate of unemployment.
		Phillips rate of unemployment.
		menu cost rate of unemployment.

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QUESTION 15

Based on the work of economist A.W. Phillips, economists concluded that

		high inflation rates are associated with low unemployment rates.
		higher rates of inflation are associated with higher rates of unemployment.
		there is no trade-off between inflation and unemployment.
		unemployment can be effectively combated by raising wages.

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QUESTION 16

What happens to the Phillips curve when the expected rate of inflation rises?

		The curve shifts to the right
		The curve shifts to the left
		The Phillips curve is unaffected
		The curve becomes horizontal

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QUESTION 17

The short-run Phillips curve suggests what policy making implications?

		Passive policy making is more effective than active policy making.
		Active policy making does not yield any predictable results.
		Maintaining both the inflation and unemployment rates at low levels is possible if policy makers will rely solely on nondiscretionary policy making.
		Using discretionary policies, it may be possible to achieve just the right unemployment and inflation mix.

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QUESTION 18

We observe the duration of unemployment falling and wage rates rising. It is likely that

		aggregate supply has increased.
		aggregate demand has increased.
		summer has arrived.
		the government has initiated expansionary fiscal policy but the policies haven't taken effect yet.

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QUESTION 19

Policymakers' attempts to use the Phillips curve to reduce the unemployment rate below the natural rate

		will be successful since the Phillips curve shows the relationship between the inflation rate and the unemployment rate.
		will be unsuccessful if monetary policy is used since monetary policy leads to higher prices.
		will be successful if monetary policy is used.
		will be unsuccessful since workers' expectations adjust to attempts to reduce unemployment below the natural rate.

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QUESTION 20

Which one of the following would likely reduce the level of structural unemployment?

		strengthening restrictions on who can be licensed to enter certain professions
		increasing the minimum wage to encourage more people to work
		increasing the level of union bargaining power
		limiting unemployment insurance benefits

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QUESTION 21

An unexpected decrease in aggregate demand

		will decrease real GDP, but will not affect the rate and duration of unemployment.
		will decrease the price level.
		will decrease long-run aggregate supply.
		will decrease the average duration of unemployment.

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QUESTION 22

When a person bases her future expectations for the economy on all available current data and her own judgment about future policy effects, this is known as

		rational expectations.
		irrational expectations.
		the policy irrelevance proposition.
		the new classical theory.

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QUESTION 23

According to the rational expectations hypothesis, monetary policy can have real effects on such variables as real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the short run

		when the Federal Reserve's open market committee operates as expected in either buying or selling bonds.
		regardless of whether the policy is anticipated or unanticipated.
		only when the policy is unsystematic and unanticipated.
		only when the policy is anticipated.

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QUESTION 24

Rational expectations theory suggests that short-run stabilization policy

		should not be attempted.
		is best achieved with fiscal policy.
		is best achieved with monetary policy.
		is equally easy to achieve with monetary or fiscal policy.

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QUESTION 25

Proponents of the policy irrelevance proposition believe that, under the assumption of rational expectations, the unemployment rate will

		go down whenever the Fed announces an anticipated fiscal policy change.
		equal the natural rate of unemployment in the long run, regardless of any monetary policy actions.
		always be higher in the long run than the natural rate of employment.
		go up whenever the Fed announces an anticipated monetary policy change.

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QUESTION 26

For the policy irrelevance theorem to hold, people must

		not persistently make the same mistakes in forecasting the future.
		know exactly what the Fed is planning to do.
		know the future perfectly.
		never make mistakes in their forecasts, even when they do not know the future perfectly.

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QUESTION 27

According to the policy irrelevance proposition, the impact of an anticipated expansionary monetary policy will be to

		increase the price level in the long run.
		increase the real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the long run.
		decrease the natural rate of unemployment.
		decrease the price level and the unemployment rate.

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QUESTION 28

One key assumption lying behind the policy irrelevance proposition is that

		prices are "sticky" upward.
		wages are "sticky" downward.
		markets are not purely competitive.
		the rational expectations hypothesis is correct.

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QUESTION 29

According to the real business cycle theory, an increase in an input price, such as oil, will

		increase both real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the price level.
		increase real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but not change the price level.
		decrease both real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the price level.
		decrease real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but increase the price level.

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QUESTION 30

When "stagflation" occurs,

		the economy experiences higher inflation rates and higher unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences lower inflation rates and higher unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences higher inflation rates and lower unemployment rates at the same time.
		the economy experiences lower inflation rates and lower unemployment rates at the same time.

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QUESTION 31

When a supply shock is permanent

		only the short-run aggregate supply curve shifts leftward.
		only the long-run aggregate supply curve shifts leftward.
		there are no shifts in either the long-run or short-run aggregate supply curve.
		both the long-run and short-run aggregate supply curves shift leftward.

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QUESTION 32

According to economists who promote sticky-price theories,

		only monetary policy is an effective stabilization policy.
		only fiscal policy is an effective stabilization policy.
		both fiscal and monetary policy can be effective stabilization policies.
		neither fiscal nor monetary policy is an effective stabilization policy.

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QUESTION 33

Some economists suggest that because of the costs of negotiating contracts, printing price lists, etc., it is costly for firms to change prices in response to demand changes. This hypothesis is known as the

		menu cost theory.
		Phillips theory.
		Freidman theory.
		sticky wage theory.

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QUESTION 34

The menu cost theory suggests that

		wages and prices move freely and quickly.
		there will be no unemployment.
		firms find frequent price changes to be costly.
		the economy is characterized only by perfect competition.

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QUESTION 35

In new Keynesian theory, the pattern of inflation exhibited by an economy with growing aggregate demand known as inflation dynamics is

		initially speedy upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by lower inflation in the future.
		initially sluggish downward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by lower inflation in the future.
		initially sluggish upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by higher inflation in the future.
		initially speedy upward adjustment of the price level and inflation in response to higher aggregate demand followed by higher inflation in the future.

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QUESTION 36

Menu costs are a possible reason for

		swings in the labor force participation rate.
		sticky product prices.
		aggregate supply shocks.
		low levels of consumer confidence in response to aggregate supply shocks.

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QUESTION 37

New Keynesians hypothesize that

		the relationship between inflation and unemployment is exploitable in the short run.
		fluctuations in output are largely caused by supply shocks.
		the relationship between inflation and unemployment is exploitable in the long run.
		there is no relationship between inflation and unemployment.

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QUESTION 38

Economists Milton Friedman and E.S. Phelps suggested that the apparent trade-off suggested by the Phillips curve could not be exploited by policy makers, because

		unemployment levels and the inflation rate have a negative (inverse) relationship.
		unemployment levels and the inflation rate have a clear, positive relationship.
		economic participants routinely incorporate changes in the inflation rate into their expectations.
		economic participants are not rational, and therefore act unpredictably to any policy change.

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QUESTION 39

When it comes to active policy making most economists agree that

		it is unlikely that active policy making will have any long term effects on the economy.
		it will lead to long term shocks in the system.
		it is likely that active policy making will have long term effects on the economy.
		active policy making should be used over passive policy making.

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QUESTION 40

If population growth occurs while jobs are difficult to obtain or labor force participation does not increase,

		economic growth will be robust because any population gain is a plus.
		per capita GDP is likely to increase sharply.
		there may be little or no increase in a nation's labor resources.
		a nation's labor resources will still continue to increase in both quality and quantity.

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QUESTION 41

If the level of aggregate real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) remains constant, a reduction in the population

		indirectly reduces per capita real GDP.
		directly reduces per capita real GDP.
		directly increases per capita real GDP.
		has no effect on real per capita real GDP.

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QUESTION 42

Suppose a nation's real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) grows at a constant rate of 5 percent per year while its population grows 2 percent annually. Given this information, this nation's annual rate of per capita real GDP growth is approximately equal to

		2 percent
		1 percent
		5 percent
		3 percent

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QUESTION 43

In the determination of economic growth, political freedom

		is equally as important as economic freedom.
		appears to be less important than economic freedom.
		contributes little to job growth.
		is more important than economic freedom.

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QUESTION 44

Political freedom can sometimes moderately reduce economic growth because

		special interest groups may gain at the expense of the overall economy.
		campaign contributions rob the economy of investment.
		most jobs are in unions that are politically connected.
		none of the above.

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QUESTION 45

Economic freedom is

		the right to own private property and to exchange goods with minimal government interference.
		present as long as private individuals own businesses.
		the amount of control that the government has in a market.
		the right to vote in an election for a political leader.

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QUESTION 46

The right to openly support and democratically select national leaders is

		population freedom.
		political freedom.
		economic freedom.
		capital freedom.

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QUESTION 47

Economic growth is measured by

		the annual percentage change in nominal GDP.
		the annual percentage change in per capita real GDP.
		the annual percentage change in per capita nominal GDP.
		the annual percentage change in the unemployment rate.

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QUESTION 48

Laws that make it difficult to start a new business lead to a

		laissez-faire.
		low rate of economic growth.
		high rate of economic growth.
		more political freedom.

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QUESTION 49

Dead capital is

		any capital resource that lacks clear title of ownership.
		machinery that requires constant maintenance.
		machinery that fails to operate properly.
		a capital resource that depreciates rapidly.

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QUESTION 50

The significance of dead capital is that

		it is being removed from its most efficient use.
		it is difficult to allocate to its most efficient use.
		its fixed cost is too high.
		it replaces too many workers.

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QUESTION 51

Developing countries are damaged by dead capital because

		it replaces too many workers, creating unemployment.
		resulting inefficiencies greatly reduce the rate of return on investment.
		it must be sold as scrap.
		none of the above.

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QUESTION 52

The role that dead capital plays in a country's economic growth is that

		growth neither increases nor is impaired by dead capital.
		growth increases because the dead capital is replaced with more technologically efficient capital.
		growth increases since the firms using the dead capital are using it for free.
		growth is impaired since the capital cannot be allocated to its most efficient use.

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QUESTION 53

When government inefficiencies exist,

		a country tends to grow at a faster rate.
		economic growth is not influenced.
		dead capital is usually not a problem.
		a country tends to grow at a slower rate.

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QUESTION 54

The acquisition of more than 10 percent of the shares of ownership in a company in another nation is called

		gross private international investment.
		majority investment.
		foreign direct investment.
		portfolio investment.

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QUESTION 55

Most international investment finance today comes from

		portfolio and foreign direct investment.
		the sale of antiques.
		government financing.
		tax collections.

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QUESTION 56

Portfolio investment means buying

		livestock.
		less than 10 percent ownership in a foreign company.
		a life insurance policy when traveling abroad.
		more than 50 percent ownership in a foreign company.

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QUESTION 57

The primary motivation for private foreign investment in developing nations is

		to eradicate poverty.
		to improve the standard of living for workers.
		the potential for high rates of return.
		to do research in countries with fewer social regulations.

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QUESTION 58

An international financial crisis is most often caused by

		a nation's central bank lowering domestic interest rates.
		a drop in the value of the U.S. dollar.
		foreign investments and loans being withdrawn from a nation.
		a government refusing to pay its dues to the United Nations.

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QUESTION 59

Adverse selection is a barrier to financing global growth because

		there is the possibility that the funds are used for riskier behavior than the lender agreed to.
		firms sometimes have trouble determining whether they need funds or not.
		if investors have trouble identifying high-risk firms they may be unwilling to lend funds to creditworthy firms.
		of the differences between financing using loans, portfolio investment and foreign direct investment.

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QUESTION 60

Moral hazard is a barrier to financing global growth because

		there is the possibility that the funds are used for riskier behavior than the lender agreed to.
		if investors have trouble identifying high-risk firms they may be unwilling to give money to creditworthy firms.
		firms sometimes have trouble determining whether they need funds or not.
		of the differences between financing using loans, portfolio investment and foreign direct investment.

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QUESTION 61

Two types of asymmetric information that create problems for international investment are

		adverse hazard and moral selection.
		adverse hazard and moral hazard.
		adverse selection and moral selection.
		adverse selection and moral hazard.

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QUESTION 62

The multinational agency that specializes in making loans to developing nations in an effort to promote long-term development and growth is the

		International Monetary Fund.
		United Nations Development Program.
		World Trade Organization.
		World Bank.

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QUESTION 63

The multinational organization that aims to promote world economic growth by fostering financial stability is the

		World Bank.
		United Nations.
		International Monetary Fund.
		World Trade Organization.

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QUESTION 64

A nation's account with the IMF is called its

		deposit surplus.
		capital account.
		current account.
		quota subscription.

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QUESTION 65

The international unit of accounting used by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is called

		the Eurodollar.
		the IMF dollar.
		the quota subscription.
		special drawing rights.

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QUESTION 66

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was created to achieve each of the following goals EXCEPT

		to supervise exchange-rate practices of member countries.
		to help finance economic development in poor countries.
		to encourage convertibility of member countries' currencies.
		to lend funds to countries having difficulties meeting their international payment obligations.

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QUESTION 67

The World Bank specializes in making loans to promote

		short-term assistance when a nation experiences a financial crisis.
		financial stability.
		so-called stand-by arrangements and credits.
		long-term development and growth.

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QUESTION 68

The International Monetary Fund

		is the bank that causes international financial crisis when the reserves are too high.
		is a central bank like the Federal Reserve System.
		is a multinational organization that aims to promote world economic growth through more financial stability.
		is a multinational agency that specializes in making loans to promote long-term development and growth in developing countries.

orangewoodchuck298

Q1. In the short run, an increase in the discount rate usually

a. causes the equilibrium level of real GDP and the price level to fall.

b. leads banks to hold fewer excess reserves.

c. leads to an increase in the price of existing bonds.

d. results in decreases in other interest rates.

Q2. Both Keynesians and monetarists agree that monetary policy works by shifting aggregate supply.

a. true

b. false

Q3. The effect of expansionary monetary policy is to

a. increase real output and decrease the price level.

b. decrease real output and increase the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q4. The price of bonds and the interest rate are

a. unrelated.

b. inversely related.

c. related, but we are not sure how.

d. positively related.

Q5. If the Fed increases the reserve requirement,

a. banks will issue more loans.

b. consumers will save more.

c. banks will issue fewer loans.

d. consumers will save less.

Q6. A central bank that engages in inflation targeting is following a monetary rule.

a. true

b. false

Q7. The Federal Reserve increased the money supply significantly during the Great Depression, but prices continued to fall anyway.

a. true

b. false

Q8. Keynesian theory argues that

a. decreases in the money supply lead to increases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

b. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which increases investment which increases the level of real GDP.

c. increases in the money supply lead to decreases in the interest rate which decreases investment which decreases the level of real GDP.

d. increases in the money supply cause consumers to spend more which reduces the unemployment rate and therefore increases real GDP.

Q9. The effect of contractionary monetary policy is to

a. decrease real output and increase the price level.

b. increase real output and decrease the price level.

c. increase real output and increase the price level.

d. decrease real output and decrease the price level.

Q10. Keynesian economists believe that monetary policy works through its effect on

a. long-run aggregate supply.

b. the interest rate.

c. consumer confidence.

d. the federal budget deficit.

Q11. An expansionary monetary policy results in lower interest rates, which in turn

a. lead to higher rates of taxation.

b. cause firms to invest more.

c. lead to lower bond prices.

d. cause consumers to save more.

Q12. Contractionary monetary policy is used to combat recessions.

a. true

b. false

Q13. Economic growth can also be defined as the cumulative contribution of the rate of growth of capital, the rate of growth of labor, and the rates of growth of capital and labor productivity.

a. true

b. false

Q14. Small differences in the annual growth rate of a country add up to large differences over time because of compounding.

a. true

b. false

Q15. Economic growth occurs when

a. there is an increase in the inflation rate.

b. there is an increase in the amount of capital.

c. there is an increase in the unemployment rate.

d. the production possibilities curve becomes flatter.

Q16. Which one of the following is TRUE?

a. Small changes in the annual growth rate amount to a measurable difference in the long-term growth trend of a country.

b. For every country that experiences an increase in its growth rate, there must be another experiencing a decline.

c. A well-defined system of property rights benefits only the wealthy, and consequently it produces income inequality that will stifle economic growth.

d. Restricting imports will enhance a country's economic growth.

Q17. Economic growth is reflected in

growth in total output.

b. an increase in tax revenue.

c. increases in the level of employment.

d. increase in per capita real GDP.

Q18. Economic growth is reflected in the production possibilities curve becoming flatter.

a. true

b. false

Q19. Research has shown that the growth of developing countries is most strongly enhanced by

a. providing a good secondary education.

b. increasing the money supply.

c. providing incentives to have large families.

d. providing colleges and universities.

Q20. Which of the following is the most important factor affecting economic growth?

a. the rate of interest

b. the exchange rate

c. the price level

d. the rate of saving

Q21. Secondary schooling makes measurable contributions to economic growth in developing countries.

a. true

b. false

Q22. Poorly defined property rights inhibit economic growth.

a. true

b. false

Q23. Which one of the following helps preserve incentives to develop new technologies?

a. tariffs

b. income taxes

c. patents

d. quantity restrictions on imports

Q24. Studies indicate that

a. there is no relationship between economic growth and saving.

b. there is a negative relationship between economic growth and saving.

c. there is a positive relationship between economic growth and saving.

d. saving does not contribute to capital formation.

Q25. The European Union is

a. an organization established to resolve trade disputes among member nations.

b. a group of countries that impose tariffs on one another's agricultural goods.

c. a restricted trade zone.

d. a common market.

Q26. Which one of the following is FALSE?

a. Trade of goods facilitates the exchange of intellectual property as well.

b. The end result of trade is that richer countries take advantage of poorer ones.

c. A country enjoys an absolute advantage if it can produce a good with fewer resources than any other country can.

d. Countries that engage in trade will end up specializing according to their own comparative advantage.

Q27. If there are two goods and two countries, then one country can have

a. an absolute advantage in both goods but a comparative advantage in only one good.

b. an absolute advantage in both goods and a comparative advantage in both goods.

c. an absolute advantage in neither good and a comparative advantage in both goods.

d. an absolute advantage in one good, an absolute disadvantage in the other good, and a comparative advantage in neither.

Q28. An infant industry is one in which

a. the firms are too new and too small to compete internationally.

b. no country has a comparative advantage.

c. no country has an absolute advantage.

d. the products are only consumed domestically.

Q29. The European Union is an example of a common market.

a. true

b. false

Q30. An import quota will make the supply curve for the imported good

a. unitary elastic.

b. negatively sloped.

c. perfectly elastic.

d. perfectly inelastic.

Q31. If the infant-industry argument is used to protect an industry that has already matured then

a. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is below the world price.

b. consumers lose because they pay a price for a product which is above the world price.

c. no one loses.

d. stockholders lose because the firm cannot compete with other firms.

Q32. Protection should be withdrawn from an infant-industry when the companies in the industry

a. reach a sufficient size to compete with foreign firms.

b. become profitable.

c. are listed on the domestic stock exchange.

d. double their sales revenues.

Q33. Which of the following is a true statement?

a. Exporters benefit from trade and importers do not.

b. Free trade harms domestic producers of goods that face import competition.

c. Consumers benefit from trade and producers do not.

d. Everyone benefits from free trade in the short run.

Q34. In the United States today, imports are over

a. 22 percent of GDP.

b. 26 percent of GDP.

c. 14 percent of GDP.

d. 18 percent of GDP.

Q35. Table 16.6

Product Country X Country Y

Gallons of Ice Cream 2,000 1,000

Yards of Textiles 6,000 2,000

Table 16.6 shows the combinations of quantities of two goods, gallons of ice cream and yards of textiles, that can be produced with all of the resources available in two countries, X and Y.

Refer to Table 16.6. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Country X has a lower opportunity cost of producing ice cream than does Country Y.

b. Country Y has a comparative advantage in producing textiles.

c. Country X has a comparative advantage in producing ice cream.

d. In Country X, the opportunity cost of producing a gallon of ice cream is three yards of textiles.

Q36. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. The table shows the production possibilities of cookies and coffee in Alpha and Beta measured in tons. In Alpha the domestic cost of 1 ton of cookies

a. is 5 tons of coffee.

b. changes with the level of coffee production.

c. changes with the level of cookie production.

d. averages 4 tons of coffee.

Q37. Table 16.1

Alpha's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 4 3 2 1 0

Coffee 0 5 10 15 20

Beta's Production Possibilities

A B C D E

Cookies 8 6 4 2 0

Coffee 0 6 12 18 24

Table 16.1 shows the quantities of cookies and coffee that can be produced with the full amount of resources available in each of two countries, Alpha and Beta.

Refer to Table 16.1. If these two countries, Alpha and Beta, specialize based on comparative advantage

a. Beta will specialize in producing both items.

b. Alpha will specialize in cookies, and Beta will specialize in coffee production.

c. Alpha will specialize in coffee, and Beta will specialize in cookies.

d. Alpha will specialize in producing both items.

Q38. A country is made richer by its exports and poorer by its imports.

a. true

b. false

Q39. The demand for Japanese yen will increase when

a. Japan becomes more productive relative to the United States.

b. Americans change preferences in favor of domestically produced goods.

c. America is perceived as more stable politically and economically than Japan.

d. real interest rates in Japan fall.

Q40. If labor productivity improves in India relative to other countries,

a. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its appreciation.

b. the demand for the Indian rupee will decrease, leading to its depreciation.

c. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its depreciation.

d. the demand for the Indian rupee will increase, leading to its appreciation.

Q41. Assume that there is an increased demand in the United States for Australian wines. If all other factors are held constant, this will result in

a. an appreciation of the Australian dollar.

b. a movement along the demand curve for Australian wine.

c. a decrease in the supply of U.S. dollars in the foreign exchange market.

d. an appreciation of the U.S. dollar.

Q42. Capital account transactions occur

a. when a U.S. citizen purchases stock in a U.S. corporation.

b. because of foreign investments.

c. when you move money from one U.S. bank to another U.S. bank.

d. when a U.S. company purchases goods from a foreign company.

Q43. When a country intervenes in foreign currency markets to maintain a fixed exchange rate

a. it is engaged in hedging.

b. it increases the foreign exchange risk faced by its citizens.

c. it does so by using its foreign exchange reserves.

d. it smoothes out fluctuations in the level of business activity.

Q44. An increase in the U.S. demand for Japanese yen causes

a. an increase in the dollar-price of yen.

b. an increase in the demand for U.S. goods.

c. an increase in the yen-price of dollars.

d. a decrease in the supply of yen.

Q45. Other factors held constant, a rise in the price level in Japan that exceeds the rise in the price level in other countries will most likely result in

a. a decrease in the supply of the Japanese yen.

b. an increase in the supply of Japanese goods.

c. a depreciation of the dollar.

d. a decline in the level of Japanese exports.

Q46. The fact that the United States has a trade deficit means that

a. U.S. workers cannot compete with workers overseas.

b. the United States has a surplus in its capital account.

c. interest rates in the United States are low compared to the world average.

d. the United States has a deficit in its capital account.

Q47. Which of the following statements is true about the role of gifts given to U.S. citizens from foreigners?

a. Gifts are only included in the balance of payments if the gift is over $1,000,000.

b. Gifts given to U.S. citizens are not included in the balance of payments, but gifts given to foreigners are included as deficit items.

c. Gifts are included in the balance of payments.

d. Gifts are not included in the balance of payments.

Q48. Every transaction concerning the exportation of American goods constitutes a

a. demand for foreign currency and a supply of dollars.

b. demand for dollars, with no effect on markets for foreign currencies.

c. supply of foreign currency, with no effect on the market for dollars.

d. supply of foreign currency and demand for dollars.

Q49. If the capital account is in surplus, the current account will be in deficit.

a. true

b. false

Q50. The balance of payments consists of the

a. capital account, official reserve transactions account, and recent account.

b. current account, official reserve transactions account, and monetary account.

c. current account, capital account, and official reserve transactions account.

d. current account, capital account, and gold flows.

ECON 3430 Lecture Notes - Lecture 17: Controllability, Monetary Base, Dynamic Inconsistency

ECON 3430 Full Course Notes

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