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25 Dec 2018

For most cells that have 0.9% NaCl in the cytoplasm, including E. coli, the (non-0%) experimental environments used in the Osmotic Pressure lab are:

Select one:

a. Hyperosmotic

b. Acidic

c. Isosmotic

d. Hyposmotic

To increase turgor pressure in a culture of cells, you would add:

Select one:

a. Salt water (3% NaCl)

b. Saline (0.9% NaCl)

c. Distilled water

d. Extreme salinity (25% NaCl)

A common bacterial species living in the human intestine is:

Select one:

a. Staphylococcus aureus

b. Escherichia coli

c. Bacillus subtillis

d. Clostridium tetani

e. Streptococcus pyrogenes

In a solution where the solute concentration is high, the water concentration is:

Select one:

a. High

b. Low

c. Super duper pressurized

d. Unaffected

e. Equal

Which BSL does not require a primary barrier?

Select one:

a. BSL-1

b. BSL-2

c. BSL-3

d. BSL-4

e. BSL-5

If a non-infected individual tests positive for the infection, this would be

Select one:

a. A false negative

b. A false positive

c. A true negative

d. A true positive

e. High sensitivity

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Nelly StrackeLv2

27 Dec 2018

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Related questions

In the Osmotic Pressure lab, the results are based upon turbidity measurements. A relatively low turbidity suggests:

Select one:

a. More bacterial growth

b. The culture will be relatively cloudy

c. A color chang occured

d. Less bacterial growth

If the Staphylococcus aureus grew more in a 5% NaCl environment than it did in 2% or 11% NaCl, you would conclude that it is probably a:

Select one:

a. Extreme halophile

b. Osmotolerant

c. Intestinal bacteria

d. Halophile

False negatives are likely in a test with low:

Select one:

a. Sensitivity

b. Specificity

c. Experimental variables

d. 10% bleach solution

e. Sharps container

An experimental result that is positive when the microbe of interest was present is a:

Select one:

a. A false negative

b. A false positive

c. A true negative

d. A true positive

e. Low sensitivity

1) What clinical manifestation do Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis share? A) nosocomial infections B) protein A antiphagocytic factor C) hyaluronidase enzyme D) enterotoxins E) staphylokinase 2) Which of the following has been historically classified as Gram-negative bacteria but is genetically more similar to low G + C Gram-positive bacteria? A) mycoplasmas B) Mycobacterium C) Clostridium D) Propionibacterium E) Nocardia 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? A) It has a capsule. B) It can produce coagulase. C) It produces catalase. D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. E) It produces lipase. 4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers. B) They produce coagulase. C) Cell division occurs in successively different planes, and the daughter cells remain attached to one another. D) They produce Î²-lactamase. E) They produce staphylokinase, which dissolves fibrin threads in blood clots. 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is one possible diagnosis? A) erysipelas C) scarlet fever B) endocarditis D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely _______ A) Enterococcus. C) Staphylococcus aureus. B) Staphylococcus epidermidis. D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus). 7) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus. B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia. C) It causes death in over 50% of cases. D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma. E) It involves toxemia. 8) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases? A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia 9) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from nonvirulent strains? A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule that protects it from digestion after endocytosis D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar 10) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with _____ A) Streptococcus agalactiae. B) Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Streptococcus mutans. D) Enterococcus. E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae. 11) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries? A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus 12) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from _____ A) the airborne endospores it produces. B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope. C) the black eschars it produces on human skin. D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia. E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals. 13) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the most deadly bacterial toxins known? A) Clostridium perfringens C) Clostridium tetani B) Clostridium difficile D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species 14) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis? A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum 15) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action? A) It fuses irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts. B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system, causing simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair. C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin. D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat. E) It produces antibodies that attack the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle and prevent them from relaxing. 16) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to ______ A) produce powerful toxins. B) form very resistant endospores. C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host. D) easily become a pathogen in humans. E) resist most antimicrobial agents. 17) The pus from an abscess in a patient's jaw contains microbes that form yellowish grainy masses and appear filamentous under the microscope. Neither antifungal medication nor a normal course of antibiotics has been effective in treating the infection. The abscess is likely the result of infection with A) Actinomyces. B) Mycobacterium. C) Nocardia. D) Propionibacterium. E) Streptococcus. 18) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium? A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis 19) Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of ______ A) acne. C) pharyngitis B) furuncles. D) primary atypical pneumonia. E) otitis media. 20) The soil bacterium Nocardia asteroides can establish opportunistic infections of the _____ A) skin C) central nervous system B) lungs D) cardiovascular system. E) skin, lungs, and central nervous system

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3) The hydrolysis of sucrose to glucose and fructose is exergonic. However, if you dissolve sucrose in water and keep the solution overnight at room temperature, there is no detectable conversion to glucose and fructose. Why?

Select one:

a. The change in free energy of the reaction is negative.

b. The activation energy of the reaction is high.

c. The free energy of the products is higher than the free energy of the reactants.

d. This is a condensation reaction.

e. The change in free energy of the reaction is positive.

5) Competitive inhibition differs from non-competitive inhibition in that the ___1___ site is where we see competitive inhibition, while the non-competitive inhibitor __2___.

1. a. allosteric b. non-active c. active d. hydrophillic e. hydrophobic

2.
a. binds to the active site, thus blocking it
b. binds outside the active site, changing the shape of the enzyme
c. binds outside the active site, and blocks the active site

6) Phosphofructokinase is an enzyme, and as such it __1___ of the reaction. It is part of glycolysis, and is an example of an enzyme controlled by inhibition, as high levels of citrate (an intermediate further down the catabolic pathway) turns the enzyme off
(1)Select one:
a. lowers activation energy
b. lowers the ÎG
c. raises the Free Energy
(2)Select one
a. non-competitivenegative feedback
b. irreversible competitivereversible competitive.

15)The reactions in the pathways of glycolysis and the citric acid cycle harvest the high-energy electrons stored in glucose. Therefore, these pathways _______________.

Select one:

a. take place in animal cells, but not in plant cells
b. are catabolic pathways
c. are anabolic pathways
d. involve the reduction of glucose and its metabolic intermediates

21) In an exergonic chemical reaction, the products have less free energy than the reactants (-ÎG). Endergonic reactions require an input of energy (+ÎG). The addition of starting materials and the removal of end products prevent metabolism from reaching final equilibrium. Instead, the cell exists in a state of dynamic equilibrium.

Select one:
True
False