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14 Aug 2018

QUESTION 1. Choose the true statement about prokaryotic and eukaryotic DNA replication.

A.Eukaryotic DNA replication involves less protein factors than does prokaryotic DNA replication.
B. Prokaryotic DNA polymerases replicate DNA 5' to 3', while eukaryotic DNA polymerases replicate DNA 3' to 5'.
C. Eukaryotic DNA replication begins at multiple origins of replication, while prokaryotic DNA replication begins at a single origin of replication.
D. Prokaryotic genomes take longer to replicate than eukaryotic genomes.

QUESTION 2. Bacterial cells use DNA replication to:

A. make back-up copies of their genome in case of a mutation.
B. manifest multiple phenotypes at once.
C. copy their genetic material prior to binary fission.
D. build functional proteins.

QUESTION 3. Choose the true statement about the genetic code.

A. A cell's mRNA code is read four nucleotides at a time to specify a single amino acid.
B. The genetic code encodes 64 amino acids, one for each of the 64 corresponding codons.
C. The genetic code is redundant, with multiple codons specifying a single amino acid.
D. The genetic code varies widely among organisms, with each having a different set of codons for a corresponding amino acid.

QUESTION 4. Of the following enzymes, which are correctly matched with their function? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all correctly matched statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

A. Helicase, relieves torsion stress as DNA unwinds
B. Ligase, covalently bonds adjacent Okazaki fragments
C. Primase, removes RNA primers
D. DNA polymerase III, builds most of the DNA on the leading and lagging strand

QUESTION 5. Which of the following contributes to DNA replication accuracy? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

A. The capacity to proofread improves DNA replication accuracy.
B. A slow rate of DNA replication contributes to accuracy.
C. The use of primase improves DNA replication accuracy.
D. DNA replication accuracy is improved thanks to complementary base pairing rules.

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17 Aug 2018

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Related questions

Which of the following is NOT a direct consequence of the fact that DNA polymerase can only build onto the end of an existing nucleic acid?

Question 6 options:

DNA replication requires primers

Bits of DNA are lost from the ends of your chromosomes in each successive round of replication

RNA is involved in DNA replication

The enzyme "primase" is needed for DNA replication

There are multiple origins of replication on each eukaryotic chromosome

How does a nucleotide sequence code for a protein in nearly all living organisms?

Question 7 options:

a sequence of 3 nucleotides can code for one of 64 different amino acids

a sequence of 2 nucleotides can code for one of 64 different amino acids

a sequence of 2 nucleotides can code for one of 20 different amino acids

a sequence of 3 nucleotides can code for one of 20 different amino acids

a sequence of 3 nucleotides can code for 3 different amino acids

Fill in the blanks. To make one strand of DNA, _________ monomers are linked together in a chain, forming a polymer we call a(n) ________ .

Question 8 options:

nitrogenous bases, hydrogen bond

nucleotide, nucleic acid

amino acid, nucleic acid

nucleotide, nitrogenous base

amino acid, protein

Which of the following was NOT part of the ideas that Darwin used in his book On the Origin of Species?

Question 9 options:

organisms vary in characteristics that affect survival and reproduction

variation in traits is often heritable

descent with modification explains life's unity and life's diversity

organisms inherit characteristics from their parents that the parents acquired in their own lifetimes

natural selection is a cause of adaptive evolution

Here is a hypothetical mRNA sequence:

5' G G A U G C U A G U A U G A 3'

What is the amino acid sequence encoded by this mRNA?

Question 10 options:

Met-Ile-Val

Asp-Ala-Ser-Met

Met-Leu-Val

Ser-Met-Ile-Val

Gly-Cys

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

QUESTION 1. Compared to eukaryotic genomes, only prokaryotic genomes:

A. contain DNA organized by histones.
B. contain usually one, circular chromosome.
C. contain plasmid DNA.
D. have chromosomes contained in a nucleus.

QUESTION 2. Azathioprine is a drug that may be prescribed to transplant recipients to reduce the chance of tissue rejection reactions. In its active state, it acts as a purine analogue, inhibiting DNA biosynthesis. This means that 6-mercaptopurine will be inserted in place of a purine containing nucleotides during DNA replication. Given this drug's mode of action, you would expect it to be incorporated into DNA in place of:

A. nucleotides containing guanine or cytosine.
B. nucleotides containing adenine or thymine.
C nucleotides containing adenine or guanine.
D. nucleotides containing guanine nucleotide or uracil.

QUESTION 3. RNA is distinguished from DNA because only RNA:

A. typically exists as a single-stranded molecule.
B. has a 3' to 5' directionality.
C. is composed of nucleotides that contain the sugar deoxyribose.
D. is composed of nucleotides that contain the nitrogen bases T, C, G, and A.

QUESTION 4. How are RNA nucleotides different from DNA nucleotides? To be marked correct, you'll need to select all true statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

A. RNA nucleotides do not contain thymine.
B. RNA nucleotides use the sugar ribose, while DNA nucleotides do not.
C. RNA nucleotides lack phosphate.
D. RNA nucleotides incorporate pyrimidine nitrogen bases, while DNA nucleotides only incorporate purine nitrogen bases.

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