bhavish0602

bhavish0602

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Architecture2Project Management1History18Law4Management2Music4English22Philosophy130Anthropology19Astronomy16Business12Marketing1Science10Sociology6Geography2Nursing1Psychology15Ethics5Algebra21Engineering36Probability10Computer Science14Accounting18Calculus11Biology510Mathematics18Statistics1Physics30Finance3Economics11Chemistry80
Answer:Delta G0' is the standard free energy change for a biochemical reaction...
Answer:To determine the hydrodynamic pressure drop across the membrane, we can...
Answer:A) Unfortunately, the question is incomplete as some information is mis...
Answer:A recessive allele is an allele that only expresses its phenotype when ...
Answer:Chromosomes contain genes, which help to determine an organism’s genoty...
Answer:1) b) Binding to a nuclear receptor and initiating gene transcription2)...
Answer:If the parent cell is haploid, the daughter cells will also be haploid....
Answer:A. Ecology.
Answer:(a) Outdoor Air Pollution:1. Implement stricter regulations on industri...
Answer: Negative control: Negative control refers to a control experiment in w...
Answer:The region known as macula densa represents a specialized group of cell...
Answer:Part A. The correct answer is B. The presence of fluorescence in the br...

1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

Answer:1) C) active immunization by vaccination2) A) to immunize the Chinese a...
Answer:Part A. The correct answer is B. The direct fluorescent antibody test i...
Answer:A. Transformed cells are abnormal in appearance and behavior is true of...
Answer:The correct answer is A) The bacteria are transformed (by phage DNA) in...
Answer:1. C) capsomeres2. A) viral replication has stopped but may resume year...
Answer:D. A virion includes genes, a protein capsid, and sometimes a lipid-bas...
Answer: . It is true that heterosexual transmission and vertical transmission ...
Answer:C) Comparing light patterns in different parts of the retina. According...

We perceive a change in hue from blue to red when the

wavelength of the light increases

wavelength of the light decreases

amplitude of the light increases

amplitude of the light decreases

We perceive a decrease in intensity when

wavelength of the light increases

wavelength of the light decreases

amplitude of the light increases

amplitude of the light decreases

We perceive an increase in intensity when

wavelength of the light increases

wavelength of the light decreases

amplitude of the light increases

amplitude of the light decreases

A ratio of light reaching a surface to light leaving asurface.

Illuminance

Illumination

Luminance

Luminous flux

Luminous intensity

Reflectance

A measure of the visible light emitted in all directions

Illuminance

Illumination

Luminance

Luminous flux

Luminous intensity

Reflectance

Unit of measure is the lumen.

Illuminance

Illumination

Luminance

Luminous flux

Luminous intensity

Reflectance

Unit of measure is the Lux.

Illuminance

Illumination

Luminance

Luminous flux

Luminous intensity

Reflectance

The rods ... (check all that apply)

are best for viewing detail

are located in around the periphery of the retina

require more light than the cones

are used for detecting motion in the periphery

exist in three types: short, medium and long

The cones ... (check all that apply)

are best for viewing detail

are located only in the periphery of the retina

require more light than the rods

are used for detecting motion in the periphery

exist in three types: short, medium and long

The fovea is

where the optic nerve attaches to the eye

an area of densely packed rods

an area of densely packed cones

the back of the eye where the rods and cones are located

The optic disk is

where the optic nerve attaches to the eye

an area of densely packed rods

an area of densely packed cones

the back of the eye where the rods and cones are located

Visual acuity is

the ability to adjust to light levels.

the ability to detect changes in contrast.

the ability to detect detail.

the ability to focus light on the retina.

Accommodation is

the ability to adjust to light levels.

the ability to detect changes in contrast.

the ability to detect detail.

the ability to focus light on the retina.

The retina is

where the optic nerve attaches to the eye

an area of densely packed rods

an area of densely packed cones

the back of the eye where the rods and cones are located

A eye that focuses light in front of the retina is

myopic

hyperopic

presbyopic

astigmatic

Answer:We perceive a change in hue from blue to red when the wavelength of the...
Answer:The two cellular organelles that are thought to have once been independ...
Answer:Based on the provided information, the Evaluation and Management (E/M) ...
Answer:The evaluation and management code for this case would be a level 4 out...
Answer:The evaluation and management (E/M) code for this scenario would be 992...
Answer:1) Proelastase would still be active in absence of trypsin.2) Movement ...
Answer:c Sodium ions moving out of an animal cell bathed in physiological sali...
Answer:a. Bacteria cell: The DNA is located in the nucleoid region, which is n...
Answer:A living cell that contains DNA, RNA, ribosomes, a nucleus, and a cell ...
Answer:1) d) Increasing levels of PEPCK (phosphoenol carboxykinase)2) c) Incre...
Answer:1) b) A healthy female in the third trimester of pregnancyExplanation: ...
Answer:1) c) Direct it to the proteasome2) c) <13) d) Carnitine
Answer:a. The presence of a GTP analog can lead to the activation of G protein...
Answer:All of the options except A may be used to diagnose myocardial infarcti...
Answer:Unstable angina - Type of angina that is caused by coronary artery vaso...

5. A patient with chronic-stable angina begins taking metoprolol, and once blood levels reach the therapeutic range the frequency and severity of angina attacks and the need for sublingual nitroglycerin were reduced. Which of the following states the direct pharmacologic action by which the beta-blocker produced the desired effects? A. Decreased myocardial oxygen demand

B. Dilated coronary vasculature

C. Directly inhibited angiotensin II synthesis

D. Reduced total peripheral resistance

6. A patient with newly diagnosed essential hypertension starts treatment with a commonly used antihypertensive drug at a dose that is considered to be therapeutic for the vast majority of patients. Soon after starting therapy the patient experiences crushing chest discomfort. ECG changes show myocardial ischemia. Studies in the cardiac catheterization lab show episodes of coronary vasospasm, and it is likely the antihypertensive drug provoke the vasospasm. Which antihypertensive drug most likely caused the ischemia and the angina?

A. Atenolol

B. Diltiazem

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Lozartan

7. A 28-year-old woman is receiving drug therapy for essential hypertension. She subsequently becomes pregnant. You realize that the drug she's been taking for her blood pressure can have serious, if not fatal, effects on the fetus. As a result, you stop the current antihypertensive drug and substitute it with another drug that is deemed to be equally effective in terms of her blood pressure, and safer for the fetus. Which of the following drugs was she most likely taking before she became pregnant?

A. Alpha-Methyldopa

B. Captopril

C. Furosemide

D. Labetalol E. Verapamil

8. The use of propranolol as an antiarrhythmic agent is contraindicated in patients with:

A. COPD

B. Asthma

C. Severe heart failure

D. A and C

E. All of the above

Answer:1. Regulate intracellular second messengers through G-protein-coupled r...

1. Dopamine, epinephrine (or norepinephrine) and histamine are important neurotransmitter agonists. When these ligands interact with their cellular receptors, how do they mainly elicit their responses?

Activate adenylyl cyclase directly, leading to increased intracellular cAMP levels

Activate phospholipase C

Induce or inhibit synthesis of ligand specific intracellular proteins

Open or close ligand gated ion channels

Regulate intracellular second messengers through G-protein-coupled receptors

2. A patient with chronic-stable angina is on prophylactic beta-blocker therapy, with sublingual nitroglycerin used PRN (as needed) for managing acute angina. One day he experiences particularly severe angina and takes the usually recommended dose of sublingual nitroglycerin (NTG). His discomfort is not reduced at all. Seeking relief, he repeats the usual recommended dose of NTG dose 6 times over a period of about 10 minutes, and now has taken far too much of the nitrovasodilator.

An electrocardiogram taken by the paramedics, who were called for the patient’s emergency, shows changes consistent with myocardial ischemia. The patient incurs a massive infarction, goes into cardiac arrest, and cannot be resuscitated.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of or contributing factor to the patient’s ultimately fatal response to the excessive dosage of NTG? Assume the patient was taking no other drugs except the NTG and a beta-blocker.

A. Cyanide, or toxic metabolite of NTG, accumulated.

B. NTG directly induced coronary vasoconstriction.

C. NTG lowered arterial (coronary perfusion) pressure excessively

D. Beta-blocker counteracted the effects of NTG and increased the risk of ischemia

3. A 65-year old man with heart failure is unable to climb a flight of stairs without experiencing dyspnea. After several years of therapy with carvedilol, captopril and furosemide, the therapeutic plan probably needs to change now. You empirically add digoxin to improve cardiac muscle contractility. Within 4 week he has a marked improvement in his symptoms. Which of the following best describes the main cellular action of digoxin that accounts for its ability to improve his cardiovascular function?

A. Activates beta1-adrenergic receptors

B. Facilitates GTP binding to specific proteins

C. Increases mitochondrial calcium (Ca++) release

D. Inhibits sarcolemmal Na/K-ATP-ase

4. A patient has frequent episodes of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). Which of the following drugs would be most suitable for outpatient prophylaxis of these events?

A. Adenosine

B. Lidocaine

C. Nifedipine

D. Verapamil

Answer:1. The correct answer is "Regulate intracellular second messengers thro...
Answer:d) It depends on a sodium gradient. GLUT 2 is a facilitative glucose tr...
Answer:The dancing duo credited with popularizing Cuban/African dance steps, i...
Answer:A. BryophytesThe dominant stage refers to the stage of the plant's life...

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