ECON 230D1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 9: Free Trade, Rent-Seeking, Ad Valorem Tax

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Chapter 9: Applying the competitive model

Zero profit for competitive firms in the long run

-The ﬁrm may be willing to operate in the LR even tho it is making 0 economic proﬁt because by looking at

the opportunity cost, it may be making the normal business proﬁt

-A ﬁrm could therefore shutdown if it was making 0 business proﬁt

-When entry is limited because of a scare resource, ﬁrms make 0 eco proﬁt because they are driving up

the price of the rare input by all bidding for it

-A ﬁrm has to maximise their proﬁt if they want to survive, otherwise lose money and risk shutdown

Consumer Welfare

-Consumer welfare from a good is the beneﬁt a consumer gets from consuming that good minus what the

consumer paid for the good

-The D curve reﬂects an individual’s marginal willingness to pay, meaning the max amount they will pay

for an extra unit and depends on marginal value

-Consumer surplus: the monetary diff between what a consumer is willing to pay and what the good

costs

•CS= marginal willingness to pay - what the consumer actually pays

•It is the area under the D curve and above the market p up to the Q that the consumer buys

•Utility is hard to compare and hard to measure

-Effects of a p change: If S curve shifts upwards, equilibrium rises and reduces consumer surplus.

•if D curve is relatively inelastic, individuals still buy that good, even when p goes up, so less surplus

Producer Welfare

-Producer surplus: the difference between the amount for which a good sells and the min amount

necessary for the seller to be willing to produce the good

-PS= R-VC, and graphically is the area above the S curve and below the market p up to the Q produced

-PS-π=(R-VC) - (R-VC-F) = F. If F=0, then PS=π

-PS can be used to measure the effect of a shock on all ﬁrms in a market

Competition maximises welfare

-Welfare=CS+PS

-Deadweight loss: the net reduction in welfare from a loss of surplus by one gp that is not offset by a gain

to another gp from an action that alters a market equilibrium

-Happens because consumers value extra output by more tan the marginal cost of producing it

-The DWL is also the opportunity cost of giving up some of this good to buy more of another good

-It reﬂects a market failure: inefﬁcient production or consumption, often cus of price exceeds MC

Policies that shift S and D curves

-Restricting the number of ﬁrms: causes a shift of the S curve to the left and raises eq P and lowers eq

-Such regulations raises the earnings of the ﬁrms in the market

-Permit owners are the only ones who beneﬁt from restrictions, because unusual proﬁt/rent paid forces AC

to rise, hence = market P and therefore having no economic proﬁt.

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Document Summary

Zero profit for competitive firms in the long run. The rm may be willing to operate in the lr even tho it is making 0 economic pro t because by looking at the opportunity cost, it may be making the normal business pro t. A rm could therefore shutdown if it was making 0 business pro t. When entry is limited because of a scare resource, rms make 0 eco pro t because they are driving up the price of the rare input by all bidding for it. A rm has to maximise their pro t if they want to survive, otherwise lose money and risk shutdown. Consumer welfare from a good is the bene t a consumer gets from consuming that good minus what the consumer paid for the good. The d curve re ects an individual"s marginal willingness to pay, meaning the max amount they will pay for an extra unit and depends on marginal value.

Related Questions

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, the marginal cost of a firm becomes equal to its minimum average total cost.

A) True
B) False

Generally, The price a firm charges for its product is equal to its total revenue divided by the number of units sold.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive firm to maximize profit a firm must make sure that the price it charges does not exceed its marginal cost.

A) True
B) False

Firms in a competitive market can never make economic profits while they may make biasness (accounting) profits.

A) True
B) False

When a perfectly competitive firm is making a positive economic profit its average revenue must be greater than its average total cost.

A) True
B) False

To maximize its profit a firm always produces at the quantity level where it can charge the highest price and earn the greatest revenue; this strategy is consistent with setting is MC equal to price.

A) True
B) False

When a firm in a competitive market is making a positive economic profit its business profit may be positive or negative.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive market new entries could result in increases in input prices thus making production costs go up.

A) True
B) False

In a perfectly competitive market, in the long run, each firm produces the maximum amount it can produce and charges the lowest price possible. That is why we consider competitive markets efficient.

A) True
B) False

10.

A monopolist always under-produces and charges a price higher than its MC.

A) True
B) False

11.

As the only supplier in the market a monopolist can charge any price it wishes and buyers have no choice but to pay.

A) True
B) False

12.

The marginal revenue is the additional revenue generated by the last unit of labor hired.

A) True
B) False

13.

The price a monopolist charges may or may not be above its average cost but it is always above its MR.

A) True
B) False

14.

When demand curve is a downward-sloping straight line (linear) marginal revenue will be greater than MC at all output leveles.

A) True
B) False

15.

By setting its MR equal to its MC a monopolist determines the output that would maximize its profit.

A) True
B) False

16.

In the long run each competitive firm would produce at the quantity level where its MC is equal to its MR as well as its ATC.

A) True
B) False

17.

A monopoly always makes an economic profit.

A) True
B) False

18.

When a monopoly's ATC is equal to the price it charges it is making normal economic profits.

A) True
B) False

19.

When a monopoly is making a zero economic profit still its MR>ATC.

A) True
B) False

20.

An increase in demand would enable a monopolist to raise its price while reducing its output.

A) True
B) False

21.

The market supply curve in an increasing-cost industry is:

A) a. upward sloping
B) b. downward sloping
C) c. vertical
D) d. horizontal
E) e. none of the above

22.

The total producer surplus is measured by:

A) a. the area between supply and demand curves.
B) b. the difference between the price the consumer is willing and able to pay and the price suppliers wish to charge to maximize their profits.
C) c. the area between the price consumers actually pay and the demand curve.
D) d. the area between the equilibrium market price and the supply curve.
E) e. the consumer willingness to pay as reflected by the equilibrium market price.

23.

. Economists measure economic (social) welfare by the

A) a. net consumer surplus
B) b. sum of consumer and producer surplus
C) c. sum of the net profits made by the industry's competitive firms
D) d. price consumers are willing to pay for one additional unit of a good
E) e. difference between the total consumer surplus and total producer surplus

lilacfish21

_____ 1. Suppose you make silver jewelry. If the price of silver falls, we would expect you to:

a. be willing and able to produce less jewelry than before at each possible price.

b. be willing and able to produce more jewelry than before at each possible price.

c. face greater demand for your jewelry.

d. face a weaker demand for your jewelry.

_____ 2. If suppliers expect the price of their product to fall in the future, then they will:

a. increase supply (supply curve shifts out) now.

b. decrease supply (supply curve shifts in) now.

c. increase supply in the future, but not now.

d. decrease supply in the future, but not now.

_____ 3. Consider the market for portable air conditioners, initially in equilibrium. When a heatwave strikes, the equilibrium price:

a. increases and equilibrium quantity decreases.

b. decreases, and the equilibrium quantity increases.

c. and quantity both increase.

d. and quantity both decrease.

_____ 4. Buyers can buy all they want to buy and sellers can sell all they want to sell at:

a. prices at and above the equilibrium price.

b. prices at and below the equilibrium price.

c. prices above and below the equilibrium price, but not at the equilibrium price.

d. the equilibrium price, but not at prices above or below the equilibrium price.

_____ 5. The law of supply and demand states that:

a. demand and supply curves shift out as time goes by.

b. the price of a goodwill rise in response to excess demand for that good.

c. when the supply curve for good shifts, the demand curve for that good shifts in response.

d. the equilibrium price of goodwill be rising more often than it will be falling.

_____ 6. If Doritos and Cheetos are substitutes, a rise in the price of Cheetos will cause:

a. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to fall and the price of Doritos to rise.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to rise.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of Doritos to fall.

d. the equilibrium quantity of Doritos to rise and the price of Doritos to fall.

_____ 7. New production technology is perfected that allows auto manufacturers to build an automobile using half the labor hours formerly needed. As a result:

a. the equilibrium quantity of automobiles increases and the price decreases.

b. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles increase.

c. the equilibrium quantity and price of automobiles decreases.

d. there is likely no change in the number of automobiles produced.

_____ 8. The U.S. government announces that it will raise the interest rate on college student loans beginning in January of next year. The immediate market impact is:

a. the demand curve for student loans shifts out.

b. the supply curve for student loans shifts out.

c. we anticipate that more student loans will be completed next year than this year.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 9. What curve shift produces a fall in price and increase in quantity exchanged?

a. An inward shift in the demand curve.

b. An inward shift in the supply curve.

c. An outward shift in the supply curve.

d. An outward shift in the demand curve.

_____ 10. We note that fewer motorcycles were sold this year than last and that the price is also lower. What event could have caused this outcome?

a. A technological change that improved the fuel efficiency of motorcycles.

b. A rise in the wages paid to motorcycle manufacturing workers.

c. A motorcycle craze due to the popularity of Sons of Anarchy.

d. Increasing concerns about health impacts from breathing motorcycle exhaust.

_____ 11. The price that results in quantity supplied equaling quantity demanded is the optimal (best) price because it:

a. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers.

b. maximizes the cost of the seller.

c. minimizes the expenditure of buyers.

d. all of the above are correct.

_____ 12. Consumer surplus is the:

a. quantity of good consumers get without paying anything.

b. amount a consumer pays minus the amount the consumer is willing to pay.

c. amount a consumer is willing to pay minus the amount the consumer pays.

d. value of a good to a consumer.

_____ 13. In a market, the marginal buyer is the one:

a. whose willingness to pay is higher than all other buyers and potential buyers.

b. whose willingness to pay is lower than all other buyers and potential buyers.

c. who is willing to buy exactly one unit of the good.

d. who would be the first to leave the market if the price were any higher.

_____ 14. If a consumer is willing and able to pay $20 for a particular good and if she actually pays $16 for the good, then her consumer surplus is:

a. $4.

b. $16.

c. $20.

d. $36.

_____ 15. Suppose there is an early freeze in California that reduces the size of the orange crop. What happens to consumer surplus in the market for oranges?

a. Consumer surplus increases.

b. Consumer surplus decreases.

c. Consumer surplus is not affected by this change.

d. We would have to know whether the demand for oranges is elastic or inelastic.

_____ 16. Producer surplus is the area on a supply/demand graph:

a. under the supply curve.

b. between the supply and demand curves.

c. below the price line and above the supply curve.

d. under the demand curve and above the price line.

_____ 17. Economists typically measure economic efficiency using:

a. total producer and consumer surplus.

b. profits to firms.

c. the quantity supplied by sellers.

d. the price paid by buyers.

_____ 18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Efficiency and equality are both maximized when total surplus is maximized.

b. Efficiency deals with the size of the economic pie; equality with how fairly the pie is sliced.

c. Efficiency is more difficult to evaluate than equality.

d. Equality is judged on positive grounds; efficiency requires normative judgments.

_____ 19. The price elasticity of demand measures how much:

a. quantity demanded a response to changes in price.

b. quantity demanded a response to changes in income.

c. price responds to a change in demand.

d. Both a and c are correct

_____ 20. Goods with many close substitutes tend to have:

a. less elastic demands.

b. more elastic demands.

c. price elasticities of demand that are unit elastic.

d. income elasticities that are negative.

Short Answer Questions:

All of the following questions are based on the data shown here for coffee demand and supply at a fictional Columbus coffee shop called Go-bucks.

Price Quantity Quantity

per Cup Demanded Supplied

$1.60 1,700 1,220

$1.80 1,555 1,300

$2.00 1,400 1,400

$2.20 1,235 1,520

$2.40 1,060 1,660

$2.60 875 1,820

_____ 21. (6 points) Using the mid-point formula, calculate the price elasticity of demand as the price increases from $1.60 to $1.80.

_____ 22. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $1.80 to $2.00.

_____ 23. (6 points) Repeat the calculation of the price elasticity of demand, this time for a price increase from $2.40 to $2.60.

24. (4 points) Over which price range is demand inelastic? Over which price range is demand elastic? Does this follow the trend noted in class?

_____________________________________________________________________________

_____ 25. (6 points) Turning to the supply side, calculate the price elasticity of supply as the price increases from $2.20 to $2.40.

26. (2 points) How would you describe the price elasticity of supply over this range?

_____________________________________________________________________________

graychimpanzee865

Which statement is true?

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average variable cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's average total cost curve is the shutdown point.

The minimum point on the firm's marginal cost curve is the break-even point.

As output expands beyond the break-even point, the vertical distance between the AVC and ATC will

remain constant.

get smaller.

get larger.

Total revenue divided by output equals

average variable cost.

marginal cost.

price.

average total cost.

A monopoly firm selling mustache wax to vain men in a small town is currently maximizing profits by charging a price of $5. It follows that the marginal cost of mustache wax

is equal to $5.

is greater than $5.

is less than $5.

None of these choices are true.

A firm can sell 14 units at $18, but to sell 15 units, the firm must cut the price to $17. The marginal revenue derived from selling the 15th unit is

-$18

$17

If total revenue is increasing as output is rising, then

marginal revenue must be greater than zero.

marginal revenue must be less than zero.

marginal revenue must be equal to zero.

price must be increasing.

Firms that had virtual monopolies, that is control over at least 80 percent of industry production, because of control over an essential resource include all of the following except

the DeBeers Diamond Company.

the Standard Oil Company.

the Ford Motor Company.

the International Nickel Company.

10.

Which statement is true?

None of these statements are true.

Most natural monopolies are government regulated or government owned.

All monopolies are bad.

All monopolies are good.

11.

Which is the most accurate statement?

There are virtually no oligopolies in the U.S.

The most important aspect of oligopoly is product differentiation.

There are a whole range of oligopolistic models, from a cartel to cutthroat competition.

An oligopolistic industry cannot have more than five firms

12.

Oligopolists have more control over prices than monopolistic competitors because

their prices are always set by the government.

since an oligopolist is the only competitor in the market, setting prices is no problem.

they can legally collude whereas monopolistic competitors may not.

with fewer competitors, they are able to monitor and determine their own prices much easier.

13.

The definition of monopolistic competition differs from that of perfect competition

in neither the number of firms nor the type of product.

in both the number of firms and the type of product.

with respect to the type of product.

with respect to the number of firms in the industry.

14.

The typical monopolistic competitor

may compete on the basis of physical differences, convenience, service, and ambience.

always competes on the basis of producing a product that is physically different from those of its competitors.

never uses price discrimination.

is a large firm.

15.

Which statement is true?

The monopolistic competitor may make a profit in the long run.

The monopolistic competitor has a perfectly elastic demand curve.

None of these statements are true.

The monopolistic competitor operates at the minimum point of her ATC curve.

16.

Which statement is true about the monopolistic competitor in the long run?

It will be breaking even.

It will be making a profit.

It may be making a profit or taking a loss.

It will be taking a loss.

17.

Which statement is true?

Most monopolistic competitors are large firms.

Monopolistic competitors produce goods or services for which there are no close substitutes.

None of these statements are true.

Monopolistic competitors usually operate at the minimum point of their average total cost curves.

18.

Which statement is false?

As the price of a good rises the consumer surplus decreases.

A person would maximize her total utility when she had no consumer surplus.

We will consume a service when its marginal utility is equal to its price.

A product's utility to a buyer is measured by how much the buyer is willing to pay for it.

ECON 230D1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 9: Free Trade, Rent-Seeking, Ad Valorem Tax

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