AFM291 Chapter Notes - Chapter 7: Discounted Cash Flow, Earnings Management, Retained Earnings

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lilacmouse857

26 Jun 2018

School

University of Waterloo

Department

Accounting & Financial Management

Course

AFM291

Professor

Robert Ducharme

For unlimited access to Textbook Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

 When the entity sells investments measured at FVOCI, the total gain or loss flows through

income.

 The differences in treatment between FVPL and FVOCI applies only to unrealized gains and

losses. Realized gains and losses from actual disposals of financial assets flow through net

income and not OCI. Thus, OCI is recycled into net income.

3. Amortized Cost

 A category of financial investments that have fixed or determinable payments representing

principal and interest and the entity intends to collect theses contractual cash flows

 Applies only to debt investments

 Implementation of amortized cost method requires discounted cash flow analysis

4. Exception for Equity Investments with an Irrevocable Election

 IFRS 9 provides an exception where equity investments that will be otherwise be treated as

FVPL, a firm can elect to present changes in the fair value of an investment through OCI

 Conditions that must be met to treat equity through OCI

o Must be made when the entity initially acquires the investment

o The investment must be in equity

o The election is irrevocable, meaning that the investment cannot be reclassified into

another category

 While the entity holds the investment, any dividends received would be recorded in net income

while changes in fair value flow through OCI, just like for FVOCI discussed above.

 The only difference is, upon sale/de-recognition, any gains/losses does not flow through net

income, but continues to go into OCI and the accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI)

for the investment would be directly transferred to retained earnings. No recycling here.

 See exhibit on 306 and the following paragraph.

 Why does IFRS 9 prevents the recycling of OCI generated by investments? – Answer: due to

earnings management

o If the standards specified recycling of OCI, then management can pick the opportune

time to sell financial assets with this election in order to transfer unrealized gains (or

losses) out of AOCI and into gains/loss to boost (or reduce) net income

o Without recycling, all of the accumulated gains/losses bypass the income statement and

transfer directly into retained earnings, precluding the earnings management

5. Reclassification from one category to another

 How to classify financial assets depends on the business model selected by management rather

than the characteristics inherent in the investments

 If there are no constraints on the ability of managing to reclassify, then there would be

significant opportunities from companies to manage earnings such as transferring unrealized

gains from FVOCI to FVPL and transferring unrealized losses from FVPL to FVOCI. (recognizing

unrealized gains and deferring losses)

 IFRS 9 has guidelines for reclassification of financial assets

o Derivatives can only be classified as FVPL (with the exception of derivatives used in

hedging)

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Document Summary

When the entity sells investments measured at fvoci, the total gain or loss flows through income. The differences in treatment between fvpl and fvoci applies only to unrealized gains and losses. Realized gains and losses from actual disposals of financial assets flow through net income and not oci. Thus, oci is recycled into net income: amortized cost. A category of financial investments that have fixed or determinable payments representing principal and interest and the entity intends to collect theses contractual cash flows. Implementation of amortized cost method requires discounted cash flow analysis: exception for equity investments with an irrevocable election. Ifrs 9 provides an exception where equity investments that will be otherwise be treated as. Fvpl, a firm can elect to present changes in the fair value of an investment through oci.

Related Questions

Identify two categories of revenue for Panera Bread from the table in the article Revenue Recognition: Key differences between U.S. GAAP and IFRSs. Compare and contrast the companyâs current U.S. GAAP revenue recognition with the potential adoption of IFRS. Provide the IASB Framework or the IAS statement, the changes in revenue recognition as well as potential challenges the company may face in adoption.

Table:

Subject	U.S. GAAP	IFRSs
Concept/objective	realized or realizable and earned.	According to paragraph 83 of the IASB's Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements, revenue is recognized when (1) "it is probable that any future economic benefit" will flow to the entity and (2) such a benefit can be measured reliably. Further, paragraph 93 of the IASB Framework indicates that revenue normally must be earned before it can be recognized.
Definition of revenue	Paragraph 78 of FASB Concepts Statement No. 6, Elements of Financial Statements, defines revenue as "inflows or other enhancements of assets of an entity or settlements of its liabilities (or a combination of both) from delivering or producing goods, rendering services, or other activities that constitute the entity's ongoing major or central operations."	Paragraph 74 of the IASB Framework states, "The definition of income encompasses both revenue and gains. Revenue arises in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity and is referred to by a variety of different names including sales, fees, interest, dividends, royalties and rent." Paragraph 7 of IAS 18 defines revenue as "the gross inflow of economic benefits during the period arising in the course of the ordinary activities of an entity when those inflows result in increases in equity, other than increases relating to contributions from equity participants."
Sale of goods or products	SAB Topic 13 indicates that revenue from the sale of goods or products should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Delivery has occurred (e.g., an exchange has taken place). The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. In addition, ASC 605-15 provides guidance on product transactions that include a right of return. Further, various industry- and transaction-specific guidance is provided in other U.S. GAAP.	Under paragraph 14 of IAS 18, revenue from the sale of goods is recognized if all of the following conditions are met: The "entity has transferred to the buyer the significant risks and rewards of ownership of the goods." The "entity retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the degree usually associated with ownership nor effective control over the goods sold." The "amount of revenue can be measured reliably." "[I]t is probable that the economic benefits associated with the transaction will flow to the entity." The "costs incurred or to be incurred in respect of the transaction can be measured reliably."
Rendering services	>Like revenue from product sales, revenue from service transactions should not be recognized until it is earned and realized, or realizable. Revenue is generally earned and realized, or realizable, when all of the following conditions have been satisfied: There is persuasive evidence of an arrangement. Service has been rendered. The sales price is fixed or determinable. Collectibility is reasonably assured. Other than the limited guidance in >ASC 605-20, no specific guidance on the rendering of services exists under U.S. GAAP. The appropriate method for recognizing revenue in such transactions depends on the individual transaction but is usually based on the proportional performance as of the balance sheet date.	Paragraph 20 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of a transaction involving the rendering of services can be estimated reliably, revenue associated with the transaction shall be recognised by reference to the stage [i.e., percentage] of completion of the transaction at the balance sheet date." Paragraph 20 goes on to list specific conditions for determining whether an outcome of a transaction can be estimated reliably. And subsequent paragraphs provide guidance on determining the stage of completion. Paragraph 26 of IAS 18 states, "When the outcome of the transaction involving the rendering of services cannot be estimated reliably, revenue shall be recognised only to the extent of the expenses recognised that are recoverable."
Software arrangements	ASC 985-605 provides guidance on recognizing revenue in a software arrangement.	There is no specific guidance on software revenue recognition in IFRSs. An entity should apply the provisions of IAS 18 as appropriate.
Construction-type contracts	ASC 605-35 provides guidance on construction-type contracts. ASC 605-35-25-90 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when dependable estimates cause the outcome to be doubtful), the completed-contract method is preferable. ASC 605-35-25-25 through 25-27, the customer must approve the scope and price of change orders before the related revenue can be recognized.	IAS 11, Construction Contracts, provides guidance on construction-type contracts. Paragraph 32 of IAS 11 indicates that when the percentage-of-completion method is deemed inappropriate (e.g., when the outcome of the contract cannot be estimated reliably), revenue is recognized to the extent that costs have been incurred, provided that the costs are recoverable. Use of the completed-contract method is prohibited under IFRSs. Paragraph 13 of IAS 11 specifies that when it is probable that the customer will approve the scope and price of a change order, the related revenue can be recognized.
Milestone method	ASC 605-28 provides guidance on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements.	There is no specific guidance in IFRSs on the application of the milestone method for recognizing revenue in research or development arrangements.
Multiple-element arrangements	ASC 605-25 provides guidance on multiple-element revenue arrangements and establishes detailed criteria for determining whether each element may be separately considered for recognition. This guidance does not apply to arrangements or deliverables that are within the scope of other authoritative literature (e.g., ASC 985-605).	Paragraph 13 of IAS 18 indicates that the recognition criteria under IAS 18 are usually applied separately to each transaction unless either of the following conditions applies: "[I]t is necessary to apply the recognition criteria to the separately identifiable components of a single transaction in order to reflect the substance of the transaction." Two or more transactions "are linked in such a way that the commercial effect cannot be understood without reference to the series of transactions as a whole."
Bill-and-hold arrangements	The SEC staff lists specific criteria that must be met for revenue to be recognized in bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. (Non-SEC entities also use these revenue recognition criteria because no other authoritative guidance in U.S. GAAP addresses the accounting for these transactions.) The criteria restrict revenue recognition to limited circumstances.	Illustrative Examples to IAS 18 list criteria for recognizing revenue under bill-and-hold arrangements before delivery of the product. While the objective for recognizing revenue in bill-and-hold arrangements may be similar to that in U.S. GAAP, the criteria are not the same.
Gross versus net	ASC 605-45 provides guidance on whether to report revenue on the basis of the gross amount billed to the customer (as a principal) or the net amount retained by the company (as an agent).	Paragraph 8 of IAS 18 requires that revenue be reported on a net basis in agency relationships but does not provide specific guidance to consider. Improvements to IFRSs issued in April 2009) provides examples that indicate whether an entity is acting as a principal or as an agent.
Customer loyalty programs	Revenue recognition for customer loyalty programs is not specifically addressed in U.S. GAAP. (The EITF attempted to address this issue but did not reach a consensus.) Although entities account for customer loyalty programs in different ways, such programs are typically accounted for under ASC 605-25 as multiple-element arrangements or under an incremental-cost model.	IFRIC 13 indicates that customer loyalty programs are deemed multiple-element revenue transactions and that the fair value of the consideration received should be allocated between the components of the arrangement.
Rebates, discounts, incentives, and other consideration	ASC 605-50 indicates that consideration given by an entity to its customers is presumed to be a reduction of revenue unless an identifiable benefit whose fair value can be reasonably estimated is received.	Paragraph 10 of IAS 18 states that revenue "is measured at the fair value of the consideration received or receivable taking into account the amount of any trade discounts and volume rebates allowed by the entity." There is no specific guidance on other types of consideration given by an entity to its customers.
Specific industry and other guidance	Certain standards in U.S. GAAP provide specialized guidance on revenue recognition, including guidance that applies to specific industries and transactions.	IFRSs provide no (or limited) revenue recognition guidance that applies to specific industries or transactions.

greyhornet170

Read the 2015 annual report of Air France â KLM and answer the 20 questions asked regarding the accounting issues. Link is provided below:

http://www.airfranceklm.com/sites/default/files/publications/afkl_registration_doc_2015.pdf

1. Air France-KLM reports âConsolidated statement of recognized income and expensesâ for the year ended December 31, 2015. If this statement was a U.S. GAAP statement, what would be the title of this statement?

a. Consolidated statement of total net income

b. Consolidated statement of other comprehensive income

c. Consolidated statement of comprehensive income

d. Consolidated statement of recognized net income

2. What method does Air France-KLM use for the Statement of Cash Flows?

a. Indirect method

b. Direct method

c. Gross method

d. Net method

3. The basic and diluted earnings per share for the year ended December 31, 2015, indicates that Air France-KLM has:

a. no convertible debts.

b. some dilutive securities.

c. no preferred stocks.

d. some treasury stocks.

4. What method is used to account for investments in companies over which Air France-KLM can âexercise significant influence on financial and operating policy decisions?â

a. Cost method

b. Liability method

c. Equity method

d. Fair value method

5. Sale of passenger tickets is accounted for at the time of ticket sale as:

a. Sales revenue

b. Deferred revenue

c. Contingent asset

d. No recognition

6. How does Air France account for business combination costs other than those related to the issuance of debt or equity securities?

a. Expensed as incurred

b. Capitalized as incurred

c. Included in goodwill

d. Used to offset fair value of the acquisition

7. Which of the following is not an âaccumulated other comprehensive incomeâ item among those reported in the âreserves and retained earningsâ in the 2015 consolidated balance sheet of Air France-KLM?

a. Available for sale securities reserves.

b. Derivatives reserves.

c. Legal reserves.

d. Pension defined benefits reserves.

8. What is the carrying amount of investments in debt and equity securities that are classified as available-for-sale?

a. Fair value Cost

b. Amortized cost

c. Lower of cost or market

9. Inventories are carried at:

a. The lower of the first-in-first-out cost or net realizable value.

b. The first-in-first-out cost.

c. The lower of the weighted-average cost or net realizable value.

d. The weighted-average cost.

10. Air France-KLM classifies its frequent flyer programs as:

a. Noncurrent liability

b. Current liability

c. Current asset

d. Other debt

11. The followings are included in Air France-KLMâs intangible assets, except for:

a. Trademarks

b. Leased aircraft

c. Customer relationships

d. Slots for takeoff and landing

12. Air France-KLM reports bank overdrafts as:

a. A contra account to cash and cash equivalents.

b. A current liability.

c. An expense.

d. A bank deposits in transit.

13. Which method does Air France-KLM use to record depreciation expense for its flight equipment?

a. The activity-based method.

b. The sum-of-yearsâ-digit method.

c. The straight-line method.

d. The group method.

14. Which accounting standards does Air France-KLM use?

a. U.S. GAAP

b. French GAAP

c. Netherlands GAAP

d. International Financial Reporting Standards

15. As of December 31, 2015, what assets are held for sale?

a. Land

b. Aircraft

c. Equipment

d. Buildings

16. Which of the following is included in âincome from operating activitiesâ but not in âincome from current operations?

a. Sale of aircraft equipment

b. Research and development costs

c. Bad debt expense

d. Interest revenue

17. Which of the following is not true about accounting treatment for the overhaul cost of major airframe and engine?

a. The cost is treated as separate asset component.

b. The cost is capitalized.

c. The cost is depreciated over the remaining useful life.

d. The cost is expensed as incurred.

18. How are financial assets accounted for if the Air France-KLM intends to sell them in the near future to realize capital gains?

a. At fair value with fair value changes recognized in the current period profit and loss

b. At fair value with fair value changes recognized as other comprehensive income

c. At cost with no recognition of fair value changes

d. At amortized cost with no recognition of fair value changes

19. Which of the following is not true about impairment test?

a. Tangible fixed assets, intangible assets, goodwill, and other assets with indefinite useful life are subject to an impairment test.

b. The impairment test is done at least once a year.

c. Recoverable value is the lower of the net realizable value and value in use.

d. The value in use is determined according to the discounted future cash flow method.

20. Which of the following is not an âother non-current income and expensesâ item?

a. Restructuring costs

b. Gains and losses on disposal of shares available for sale

c. Gains and losses on disposal of subsidiaries and affiliates

d. Gains and losses on sale of trading securities

1.Ellison corporation acquires redstone corporation because redston has unused production facilities that Ellison needs. This is an example of

a.diversification

b. vertical integration

c. Horizontal integration

d. None of the above

2. Synergy may result from which of the following?

a. Enhanced cash flow

b. Diversification

c. Excess cash

d. All of the above

3.Which of the following is not a qualitative factor?

a. Product users

b. Industry maturity

c. Sales of growth

d. Barriers to entry

e. None of the above

4.Present value calculations

a. Can help the creation of value

b. Can provide managers with a means of identifying the best investment choices.

c. Do not help in the creation of value

d. A and b

e. B and c

5. Which of the following ratios makes firm comparisons difficult?

1. EPS

2. Payout

3. Return on assets

4. ROE

5. None of the above

6. Breakeven EBIT analysis leads to

a. Issuance of debt

b. Issuance of stock

c. Both a and b

d. Either a or b

e. None of the above

7. If the bondâs coupon rate is greater than the general interest rates in the market, the bond will set at a

A. premium

b. discount

c. neither a nor b

8. As the interest rate used to discount future cash flows is decreased, present value of the future inflows

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Stays the same

9. The ______________ matches revenues with expenses for the entire accounting period

a. Balance sheet

b. Cash flow statement

c. Statement of retained earnings

d. Income statement

e. None of the above

10. What performing sensitivity analysis

a. Statistical methods should not be employed

b. Electronic spreadsheets make the job more manageable

c. Assumptions should be changed one at a time

d. All of the above

e. B and c

11.Jones is saving for a new outboard motor. He needs to have 10,000 4 years from now. How much must he set aside not have 10,000, 4 years from now if money compounds at 12% annually.

a.$6310

b. $6355

c. $6332

d. $6106

e. None of the above

12.A firms dividend policy impacts the firmâs ability to finance through

a. Retained earnings

b.Stock issue

c. Long term debt

d. None of the above

13. Synergy between two companies

a. Is the complimentary situation where value is created in the joining o the firms

b. May result in the improvement of the acquirers bottom line

c. Could be defined by purely qualitative benefits

d. A and c

e. B and c

15. The percentage of net income that a company distribution in dividends is referred to as the

a. EPS

b. Payout ratio

c. ROA

d. ROE

e. None of the above

16. The statement that shows investment is the firms and the distributions to owners is the

a. Income statement

b. Balance sheet

c. Statement of retained earnings

d. None of the above

17. Which of the following methods results in a net present value of zero?

a. IRR

b. Payback

c. Discounted payback

d. None of the above

18. Ivy company acquires Reynolds company. Reynolds is in a totally unrelated business to Ivy. This is an example of

a. Vertical integration

b. Horizontal integration

c. Diversification

d. None of the above

19. Which of the following limits a firmâs ability to raise equity through retained earnings?

a. Set divided policy

b. Low p/e

c. High p/e

d. None of the above

20. Testing the validity of your calculations by subjecting them to change is known as

a. Qualitative testing

b. Horizontal analysis

c. Vertical analysis

d. Sensitivity analysis

e. None of the above

21. Gadsen acquires digital corporation which is upstream in the marketing chain. This is an example of

a. Diversification

b. Vertical integration

c. Horizontal integration

d. None of the above

22. Which of the following methods help to âsizeâ the investment?

a. Payback

b. Present value payback

c. Present value index

d. IRR

e. None of the above

22. Aspect company acquires Penn company which is downstream in the production chain. This is an example of

a. Diversification

b. Vertical integration

c. Hortizontal integration

d. None of the above

23.The âefficient marketâ theory means to be reasonable because

a.There are fewer financial analysts valuing securities

b.There are hundreds of investors trying to make money from improperly valued securities, and the market forces which result in driving stock prices to fair value.

c. A and b

d. None of the above

24. Economic value is the same as

a. Book value/ net asset value

b. Owners equity

c. None of the above

25.When projected assets are more than projected liabilities and owners equity the plug will be

a. Notes payable

b. Notes receivable

c. Cash

d. None of the above

26. In a new issue, the ____ are those funds that remain after the neccessry fees have been deducted

a.Working capital

b.Free cash flow

c.Net proceeds

d.None of the above

27.A discount factor

a.Is the same as compounding future cash flows

b.Performs the reverse function of a compounding interest rate

c.Allows investors to quantify a figure which will assist them in comparing alternative investments

d.B and c

e.A, b, and c

28.Which of the following ratios is not a liquidity ratio?

a.ROE

b.Current

c.Quick

d.Receivable turnover

e.None of the above

29.Adrian Ardeel is saving for a new guitar. How much must Adrian set aside now to receive $4000, 7 years from now using a compound interest rate of 7% annually.

a.$2400

b.$2491

c.$2411

d.$2500

e.None of the above

30.The bondâs yield to maturity calculation is similar to a ______ calculation

a.NPV

b.IRR

c.Payback

d.Discounted payback

e.None of the above

31.Eric sets aside $100. If this money compounds at a 5%annual rate how much will Eric have 6 years from now?

a.$110

b.$121

c.$134

d.$138

e.None of the above

32.Which of the following methods does not consider the time value of money?

a.IRR

b.NPV

c.Payback

d.None of the above

33.Assessing key ratios of the company is an example of

a.Qualitative analysis

b.Quantitative analysis

c.Price level effect

d.Fixed cost

e.None of the above

34.The ratio which may observers use to quantify the stock markets opinion of a firm is the

a.ROE

b.EPS

c.D/E

d.P/E

e.None of the above

35.A bond which is valued at par has a yield to maturity which is _____ to its coupon rate

a.Equal to

b.Greater than

c.Less than

d.None of the above

36.Many coverage ratios include

a.Sinking fund obligations

b.Dividends

c.Both a and b

d.None of the above

37.The cost of capital can be defined as

a.The weighted average cost of attracting investors to the firm

b.The price of obtaining funding for the firm weighed according to target ratios in the capital structure

c.Less than the weighted average that investors in the firm require

d.A and b

e.A, b, and c

38.Most bonds pay interest

a.Monthly

b.Quarterly

c.Semiannually

d.Annually

e.None of the above

39.The quantitative method that often serves as an indicator of a firms ability to meet contractual obligations is

a.Receivables turnover

b.Inventory turnover

c.ROE

d.Coverage ratio

e.None of the above

AFM291 Chapter Notes - Chapter 7: Discounted Cash Flow, Earnings Management, Retained Earnings

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