IRE348H1 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6: Outsourcing, W. M. Keck Observatory, Advertising Mail

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silvercat376

15 May 2020

School

UTSG

Department

Employment Relations, Centre for Industrial Relations and Human Resources

Course

IRE348H1

Professor

Alycia Damp

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Document Summary

Ire348 chapter 6: recruitment: the first step in the recruitment process. The ultimate goal of a job-related selection system is to bring people into the organization who will perform at above-average levels and who will increase the productivity of the organization. The goal of recruitment is to attract a large pool of qualified candidates (an applicant pool) from whom the organization can select the best-qualified people for the organization. Recruiting when the labor market is poor is an expensive proposition. Recruiting and retaining the best part-time workers present unique problems to companies choosing this route. Workers who receive lower pay and benefits are less likely to feel committed to their organization or to go out of their way to get the job done. Many part=time workers are unskilled and poorly educated. Outsourcing is the practice of contracting with an outside agent to take over specified hr functions, specifically recruitment.

Related Questions

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

1) Workers in one country are more productive than workers in another country because

-they have more complementary factors to work with.

-they have fewer complementary factors to work with.

-they are better motivated and paid.

2) Conservative economists would like to help younger workers get work experience by

-setting up a government jobs program.

-raising the minimum wage rate.

-lowering the minimum wage rate.

-passing a law requiring employers to hire teenagers ahead of older workers who are equally qualified.

3) The Supreme Court's "rule of reason"

-has been applied since the time of the Civil War.

-has been applied since 1945.

-was applied from 1911 to 1945.

-has been applied since 1970.

4) Which is the smallest American labor union?

-United Auto Workers

-The International Brotherhood of Teamsters

-The National Education Association

-The Service Employees International Union

5) The Change to Win coalition recently mounted a national recruiting drive, primarily targeting _______.

-All of these jobs were targeted

-cashiers

-janitors

-dishwashers

6) The demand for labor is

-determined by the supply of labor.

-determined by the wage rate.

-its marginal revenue product schedule.

-higher at lower wage rates.

7) Economic rent is associated with

-low wages.

-agricultural workers.

-factory workers.

-high wages.

8) Which statement is true?

-The most important influence on a firm's demand for a factor of production is the demand for the final product.

-All of the statements are true.

-A firm will keep hiring more and more of a resource up to the point at which its MRP is equal to its price.

-If the MRP of the last worker hired is higher than the wage rate, the firm has hired too few workers.

9) Amelia Earhart's nominal wages rose from $40,000 to $50,000, while the CPI rose by 20%. Her real wages

-rose.

-fell.

-cannot be calculated with the available information.

-stayed the same.

10) Which of the following is NOT an example of a vertical merger?

-The merger of two computer companies

-The merger of an automobile company and a tire company

-The merger of a computer company and a microelectronics chip company

-The merger of a shoe producer and a leather producer

11) The demand for a resource rises as

-its productivity falls and prices of substitutable resources falls.

-its productivity rises and the prices of substitutable resources falls.

-its productivity rises and the relative prices of substitutable resources rises.

-its productivity falls and the relative prices of substitutable resources falls.

12) Interlocking directorates were expressly forbidden under the

-neither the Sherman Act nor the Clayton Act.

-both the Sherman and Clayton Acts.

-Clayton Act.

-Sherman Act.

13) A firm's demand for labor is

-its MRP schedule.

-determined by the going wage rate.

-shaped mainly by the supply of labor.

14) If unions are successful in negotiating a wage higher than the market equilibrium wage, and also guarantee employers that they can hire as many labor hours as they desire per week at the union wage,

-all workers who join the union will be guaranteed a job.

-the quantity of labor demanded will exceed the quantity supplied at the union wage.

-the quantity of labor demanded will equal the quantity supplied at the union wage.

-the quantity of labor demanded will fall short of the quantity supplied at the union wage.

15) Which of the following offers the best example of derived demand?

-An increase in the demand for cars causes an increase in the demand for gasoline.

-An increase in the demand for movie tickets causes an increase in the demand for popcorn.

-A decline in the demand for cars causes an increase in the demand for bus rides.

-An increase in demand for movie tickets causes an increase in the demand for movie theatre workers.

16) A "bill of rights" for union members and a provision of union election procedures were two of the main provisions of the _____ Act.

-Landrum-Griffin

-Sherman Antitrust

-National Labor Relations

-Taft-Hartley

17) The decision to bring suit in an antitrust case is usually made by

-the Supreme Court or a lower federal court.

-the injured party.

-the Department of Commerce.

-the Department of Justice.

18) At its peak labor union membership was about _____% of the labor force.

-35

-45

-15

-25

19) Combinations in restraint of trade are prohibited by

-the Sherman Act.

-the Federal Trade Commission Act.

-The Clayton Act.

20) Which statement is true?

-American manufacturing wages are the highest in the world.

-American manufacturing wage rates are the lowest of any industrial country.

-Our manufacturing wage rates are the second highest in the world.

-None of the statements are true. MICROECONOMIC

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