HLTB21H3 Final: Exam Study Guide - Small pox, Measles, Malaria

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26 Feb 2011

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Old world disease and an indiscriminate disease. 10,000bc first agricultural settlements in ne africa and spread to india by means of ancient egyptian merchants. 1570-1085bc: earliest evidence on mummies: pharaoh ramses v died 1156bc pockmarks. 1122bc in china mentioned in ancient text of india. 16th century became a serious disease in england and europe. New world 16th century fall of the empires of the aztecs and the incas. 1617: contributed to the settlement of n america by the french & english biological warfare: french indian war (1754-1767) deliberate use of smallpox slave trade. Virus: genus orthopoxvirus (also includes: monkeypox, cowpox, camelpox virus etc. ) At least two strains exist: variola major and variola minor: variola minor mortality rate is less than 2% in unvaccinated persons, variola major mortality rate is 3% in vaccinated individuals and 30%-50% in unvaccinated. Hemorrhagic smallpox or blackpox: malignant and hemorrhagic forms of variola major develop in approximately.

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QUESTION 1 1. The relative importance or burden of a disease within a population will depend on a number of factors including : A. Disease frequency B. Disease severity C. Disease consequences D. All of the above

QUESTION 2 1 . With the epidemiologic transition, there is a reduction in malnutrition and _____ . A. Communicable diseases B. Injuries C. Non-communicable chronic diseases D. Mental health disorders

QUESTION 3 1. A major challenge to developing a burden of disease profile in low and middle-income countries relates to A. Unwillingness to share complete information B. Conflicting disease definitions C. Challenges obtaining information related to cause of death D. All of the above

QUESTION 4 1. The demographic transition describes which of the following changes to society A. Changes in birth and death rates that reflect a modern society B. Declines in mortality followed by a reduction in fertility C. A change in the age structure of the population D. All of the above

QUESTION 5 1. Measures of health status that combine mortality and morbidity data A. Facilitate comparisons both within and across populations B. Help estimate the quantitative health benefits from interventions C. Serve as tools to assist with resource allocation D. All of the above

QUESTION 6 1. The disability-adjusted life year is defined as A. A health gap population summary measure that combines time lost due to disability with that lost due to death B. A measure to compare the gap between the current situation to that of an ideal situation C. A measure that combines the amount of healthy life lost due to morbidity with that lost due to injury. D. Answers B and C

QUESTION 7 1. True or false? A key limitation to mortality-based indicators is that they fail to account for the morbidity caused by disease. True False

QUESTION 8 1. The most widely used composite measure of population health is the DALY, and this epidemiological measure is the sum of morbidity and ________data. A. Years of life lost (YLL) B. Morbidity C. Infant mortality rates (IMR) D. none of the above

QUESTION 9 1. What would be the best source of information on adult and infant mortality (in high income countries)? A. Disease registers B. Vital statistics C. Special survey study D. Hospital clinic statistics

QUESTION 10 1. Which term is best used to describe the proportion of people in a population who have a defined disease at a specific point of time? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 11 1. Which term is best used to describe new cases of disease occurring in a population? A. DALY B. Incidence C. Mortality rate D. Prevalence

QUESTION 12 1. Which term is used to describe the absence or presence of illness or disease? A. Demography B. Morbidity C. Mortality D. Vitality

QUESTION 13 1. Mortality (death indicators) include: A. Mortality rate B. Infant mortality rate C. Neonatal morality rate D. All of the above

QUESTION 14 1. True or false? The value of life is often implicit in the way resource allocation decisions are made, which suggests that these decisions should be as explicit, open, and transparent as possible. True False

QUESTION 15 1. _________________is projected as the number one leading cause of disease burden in 2030. A. Ischemic heart disease B. Diabetes mellitus C. HIV/AIDS D. Unipolar depression

QUESTION 16 1. Some of the negative aspects of globalization include A. Greater insecurity of employment B. Poorer housing and sanitation due to rapid urbanization C. Greater vulnerability to environmental degradation D. All of the above

QUESTION 17 1. Current concerns about climate change focus on several developments including A. Rising global average land and sea surface temperature B. Increasing frequency of extreme weather conditions C. Both A and B D. None of the above

QUESTION 18 1. True or false? Diseases carried by mosquitoes are especially sensitive to meteorological conditions because they are vulnerable to changes in the ambient temperature. As a result of changing temperatures, infectious diseases such as malaria and dengue have decreased in incidence and geographic range. True False

QUESTION 19 1. True or false? International cooperation of infectious disease control has a long history that includes obligatory reporting of outbreaks of specific diseases. However, compliance with obligatory reporting has been poor due to economic consequences that have often accompanied notification of disease outbreaks. True False

QUESTION 20 1. True or false? Globalization is a relatively new phenomenon that began in the mid-20th century. True False

1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases? A) variolation C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins B) active immunization by vaccination D) immune testing E) autoimmunization 2) Variolation was first used _______ A) to immunize the Chinese against smallpox. B) to protect individuals against the plague during the Middle Ages. C) to spread smallpox throughout the Native American populations. D) to treat individuals exposed to hepatitis. E) for research purposes in the 20th century. 3) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax. B) human cholera. C) rabies. D) influenza. E) both anthrax and rabies. 4) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by ______ A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. B) genetic manipulation. C) treatment with formaldehyde. D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde. E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells. 5) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms. B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen. C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine. D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen. E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate. 6) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes before using them for vaccination? A) formaldehyde B) aluminum C) mineral oil D) saponin E) aluminum phosphate 7) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine? A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde 8) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab for many generations. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this? A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole 9) OPV, the attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine, is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic. B) does not provide good immunity. C) can revert to wild-type virulence. D) can be spread to contacts. E) can be spread to contacts and can revert to wild-type virulence. 10) Hybridomas are factories for antibodies and are produced by _____ A) combining two virus-infected cells. B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells. C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence. D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell. E) combining two bacterial infected cells. 11) The study and diagnosis of antigen-antibody interactions in the blood is known as _____ A) immunology. B) hematology. C) serology. D) cytology. E) histology. 12) Which type of antibody assay is represented in this figure? A) an indirect ELISA C) an indirect immunofluorescence assay B) a direct ELISA D) a western blot E) an immunodiffusion assay 13) Titration is a serological procedure that A) identifies the causative microbe of an infectious disease. B) determines the amount of an antibody in the blood. C) must be done before the western blot test to diagnose HIV. D) is used for blood grouping. E) has been replaced by genetic engineering in isolating the antigen of a pathogen. 14) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent? A) a direct immunofluoresence test C) an immunochromatographic assay B) a complement fixation test D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay 15) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation. Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube. C) loss of color in the tube. B) a cloudy solution in the tube. D) a fluorescent precipitate. E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs.

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Mumps was common in World War I many troop members caught this infectious disease which leads them to hospitalization. It is also important to remember that even those who are vaccinated are still at risk for developing mumps. Mumps is a highly contagious viral disease that has continued to spread globally. This viral infection affects the parotid glands which produces saliva and are located below and in front of your ears. If you or your child develops Mumps, it can cause swelling of one or both parotid glands. Mumps outbreaks were extremely common in the United States until vaccination became routine. Since then the number of cases has dropped significantly in the United States but is still a problem in other regions of the world.

Mumps is rarely life threatening illness, but it can cause a serious discomfort in those infected. The swelling of the parotid gland lasts over a week, and it can affect feeling in the jaw. Orchitis, or inflammation of one or both testicles, is commonly seen in male patients who have reached puberty but rarely causes sterility. Low-grade fevers, headaches, and general malaise are common complaints, with a small percentage of patients displaying symptoms of viral meningitis. Rare cases of mumps can cause infection of the brain, and inflammation of the covering of the brain and spinal cord. Other complications also include arthritis, kidney and pancreases problems, deafness, and inflammation of the ovaries.

Although there is no specific treatment for mumps, it can be prevented with the vaccine. The vaccine after exposure has not been found to be protective. However, only 120 countries have the vaccine for Mumps, and that leaves countries without it suffering and could lead to serious health problems. One country that does not have this vaccine is India, and there has been a rapid growth in Mumps over the years, and it is mainly affecting children. Mumps outbreaks or sporadic cases have been periodically reported from the States of Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. India is very limited on information and data regarding mumps. The cost of the vaccine for India would offset the burden of this infectious disease.

China is one country that has a vaccination for mumps this came out in 2008 since then mumps have decreased. Except 2013-2015 a natural epidemic pattern of mumps has slightly changed making the vaccine less affective than before. During this period studies showed that mumps had decreased among teens/children and had increased in adults. These recent outbreaks have caused wide concerns regarding the vaccine and how affective it is.

In conclusion, mumps is a disease that has been around for decades. It also has the potential to have sporadic outbreaks, and it mainly affects children. In the emerging world, not all vaccines work because our bodies get used to the disease and also it can change naturally during the time. With the progression of modern technology, we can only hope that we find a way to prevent mumps altogether. Mumps is not the most serious disease, but it can cause pain and has the potential to be extremely dangerous.

Citations:

Burnett, M. (2017). An ongoing series.

Paul, S. (2017). Investigating Mumps Outbreak in Odisha, India: An Opportunity to Assess the Health System by Utilizing the Essential Public Health Services Framework.

A. C. (2017). Mumps Epidemiology and Mumps Virus Genotypes Circulating in Mainland China during 2013-2015.

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HLTB21H3 Final: Exam Study Guide - Small pox, Measles, Malaria

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