Biology 2382B Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Axoneme, Atp Hydrolysis, Dynactin

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16 Apr 2015

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Polymer of alpha and b tubulin can be much bigger than most cells. Found as a dimer usually, almost never found as a monomer, starts as a monomer but quickly transitions to the dimer. Singlets - most common 13 protofilaments forming a single tube of 25nm diameter. Most microtubules are singlets, singlets are very dynamic and always growing or shrinking. Doublets and triplets (stable) can also be formed made of 13 protofilament tube with one or two 10 protofilament tubes attached. Less abundant are doublets ore triplets, doublets are much more stable than singlet, triplets are also stable. 2 types cytoplasmic and axonemal (cilia etc) Axons have singlet microtubules, cytoplasmic axonemal referes to cilia and flagella doublet (nothing to do with neurons) + ends always point away from mtoc with end inside (there are special cases such as in dendrites, some of them run minus to plus, seems to be almost random, however in the axn it is organized)

Related Questions

7 questions could use some help on for Molecular Biology. Pleasehelp. Just answers will do (I'll figure out), but wouldn't mindexplanations. If answered correctly 5 star guarantee & goodattempt definite 'best answer'. Thanks!

Question1

Which of the following cytoskeletal components is thelargest?

Microtubules
Microfilaments (actin)
Intermediate filaments

Question2

During mitosis, all microtubules emanate from the centrosome.Therefore, the centrosome is an example of:

a microtubule organizing center (MTOC)
A +TIP protein
A catastrophin
A monomer sequestering protein

Question3

Tubulin is a G-protein. It can stabilize microtubules when boundto which of the following?

GDP
GTP
Either GTP or GDP
Neither GTP nor GDP

Question4

In the formation of microtubules, dimers are built when analpha-tubulin protein binds to a beta-tubulin protein. This is anexample of what level of protein structure?

Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quartenary structure

Question5

Different tissues in the body express slightly differentversions of alpha tubulin. Which of the following could lead toslightly different alpha-tubulin molecules with a modified proteinsequence?

One tissue has more DNA methylation upstream of thealpha-tubulin gene.
One tissue has more miRNAs produced than the other.
One tissue uses different splice sites than the other.
One tissue has different trans-elements than the other.

Question6

How is confocal microscopy different from traditionalfluorescent microscopy?
The molecules are labelled red instead of green.
The molecules are observed over time.
The molecules are observed in many thin planes, which are thenstacked together to create a crisper image.
The confocal microscope has higher objective power than regularfluorescent microscopes.

Question7

Taxol is a chemotherapy drug that permanently stabilizesmicrotubules and prevents their degradation. Describe howmicrotubules are typically destroyed and why permanentstabilization would kill dividing cells. Note: you may need toreview the basics of cell mitosis from a previous course.

ultramarinepig913

1. Kinesin-1 motors can move long distances on microtubule tracks without dissociating. By contrast, myosin II motors in skeletal muscle take only one or a few steps before letting go. What is most likely the difference between these two motors that allow two different types of movement?

A. Differences in length of the stalk of each respective motor allow for differences in step size

B. Differences in ATP versus GTP hydrolysis alter the motor head movement along filaments

C. Actin filaments are smaller in diameter and have less space for movement

D. Binding affinity of the Kinesin-1 motor head to microtubules is high, whereas binding affinity of the myosin II motor head to actin filaments is low

E. Microtubules are larger in diameter and have more space for movement

2. Dynamic instability causes microtubules either to grow or to shrink rapidly. What is the most likely reason for a microtubule to undergo rapid growth?

A. GTP hydrolysis exceeds the rate of heterodimer addition

B. GTP hydrolysis of alpha tubulin causes an outward bend in the heterodimer conformation

C. A low concentration of tubulin heterodimers are in solution

D. Heterodimer addition exceeds the rate of GTP hydrolysis

E. Increased trafficking of microtubule motor proteins favors stability

3. There are no known motor proteins that move on intermediate filaments (IFs). What property of intermediate filaments would most likely explain the lack of motor proteins?

A. Tissue specific expression of IFs prevent a single type of motor protein to evolve over time

B. Lateral bundling of IFs prevent motor movement

C. IFs are less dynamic than microtubules and actin filaments

D. IFs are unpolarized

E. IFs do not bind a nucleotide

4. You discover a mutation that results in less rapid hydrolysis of GTP by the beta-tubulin subunit. What would most likely occur?

A. There would be no change in filament assembly

B. There would be enhanced instability of the microtubule

C. There would be enhanced stability of the microtubule

D. Microtubules would not form

E. There would be enhanced treadmilling

5. Which of the following statements describes common features of cadherins and integrins?

A. They can link to microtubules using specific adapter proteins

B. They mediate heterophillic interactions

C. They achieve high binding affinity through clustering

D. They are responsible for interactions of a cell with the extracellular matrix

E. They are found in the apical plasma membrane of an epithelial cell

6. Intermediate filaments are uniquely non-polar and built by lateral bundling in five steps: 1) synthesis of an alpha-helical monomer, 2) formation of a coiled-coil dimer, 3) formation of a staggered tetramer of two coiled-coil dimers, 4) lateral association of 8 tetramers, and 5) addition of 8 tetramers to a growing filament. At what step is polarity lost?

A. Step 1

B. Step 2

C. Step 3

D. Step 4

E. Step 5

7. Collagenase is an enzyme that breaks peptide bonds in collagen to help destroy extracellular structures. What would be the most likely reason to use collagenase in a cell biology laboratory?

A. Disrupt cadherin interaction with the extracellular matrix

B. Disrupt cell-cell contacts to passage cells in cell culture

C. Dissociate epithelial cells from the underlying basement membrane to separate tissues

D. All of the answers are likely uses for collagenase

E. Lyse cells to expose intracellular proteins and organelles

yellowherring775

Need help with biology questions:

1. To increase the excretion of an acidic drug, what would you do to the urine?

	A.	Make it more basic
	B.	None of the above
	C.	Make it neutral
	D.	Make it more acidic

2. G-Protein coupled receptors directly act on which of the following secondary messenger molecules:

	A.	cAMP
	B.	ATP
	C.	ADP
	D.	GTP
	E.	None of the above or more than one of the above

3. Drug A and Drug B both produce the same level of biological/physiological response. Drug A produces this effect with 100 mg/kg dose. Drug B produces this effect with 50 mg/kg dose. Which of the following is true?:

	A.	Drug B is more efficacious than Drug A. Both drugs are equally potent.
	B.	Drug A is more efficacious than Drug B. Both drugs are equally potent.
	C.	Drug A and B are equally efficacious. Drug A is more potent than Drug B.
	D.	Drug A and B are equally efficacious. Drug B is more potent than Drug A.

4. The stomach has a ______ pH, whereas the small intestines have a _______ pH. The colon has an approximately ___________ pH.

	A.	High; low; neutral
	B.	Low; high; neutral
	C.	Low; neutral; neutral
	D.	None of the above

5. Which receptor is most likely to reduce norepinephrine levels when activated?

	A.	alpha 2 adrenergic
	B.	alpha 1 adrenergic
	C.	dopamine D1 receptors

6. Which of the following statements are FALSE?

	A.	If the Vd of a drug is between 60 and 80 L the drug has likely distributed to the total body water of a 200 kg man.
	B.	In the enterohepatic system the activity of bacteria to remove conjugates from a drug in the gut will decrease the clearance of the drug.
	C.	Lipid drugs are more likely to be reabsorbed by the kidney from the urine.
	D.	A weak basic drug (pKa = 6) will be mostly ionized in urine of a pH= 3 and only the non- ionized drug will be eliminated.
	E.	The major conjugate in Phase 2 metabolism is glucuronide.

7. Isoproterenol (Î²-agonist) is a vasodilator that increases HR. What happens to systolic and diastolic pressures upon IV administration of isoproterenol?

	A.	â systolic; â diastolic
	B.	â systolic; â diastolic
	C.	â systolic; â diastolic
	D.	â systolic; â diastolic
	E.	None of the above

8. If you want to increase the blood concentration of a drug A, you can perform which of the following procedures:

	A.	Inhibit Drug A metabolism with Drug B
	B.	Enhance Drug A reabsorption from renal proximal tubule by changing ionization of Drug A with Drug B
	C.	Allow competition of Drug B with Drug A for active renal secretion processes
	D.	Increase the binding of Drug A to serum albumin
	E.	All of the above

9. Which of the following describes Phase I metabolism?

	A.	Inactive products are always produced in this phase.
	B.	Large molecules such as glucuronic acid are conjugated to drugs in this phase.
	C.	This phase may produce active metabolites from prodrugs.
	D.	This phase only occurs in the liver.

10. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of biogenic amines?

	A.	Phenylethanolamine N-methyl Transferase
	B.	Dopamine Î²-hydroxylase
	C.	Tyrosine dehydroxylase
	D.	DOPA decarboxylase
	E.	All of the above

11. Why would an antibiotic at the same concentration be more active against bacteria in water than in serum or plasma? (Activity is measured in a test tube)

	A.	activity of the antibiotic is increased in water.
	B.	due to drug-protein interaction in serum
	C.	the antibiotic is more stable in water
	D.	all of the above
	E.	none of the above

12. Ion channels are targets for drugs. Which drug class targets Na+ channels?

	A.	Benzodiazepines
	B.	Beta blockers
	C.	Local anesthetics
	D.	Antihypertensive drugs (cardiac and smooth muscle)
	E.	Glibenclimide (diabetic drug)

13. _________________ not metabolized by catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT).

	A.	Dopamine
	B.	Epinephrine
	C.	Phenylephrine
	D.	Norepinephrine
	E.	All of the above are metabolized by COMT.

Biology 2382B Study Guide - Midterm Guide: Axoneme, Atp Hydrolysis, Dynactin

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