🏷️ LIMITED TIME OFFER: GET 20% OFF GRADE+ YEARLY SUBSCRIPTION →
Log in
Biology
5
answers
0
watching
27
views
11 Dec 2019

(A) In an RFLP analysis, one homozygote has 2 bands and another homozygote has 2 bands of different size. How many bands would you expect in a heterozygote with these parents? Select one: a. 4 b. 3 c. 0 d. 2 e. 1

(B) Which of these statements about polymerase chain reaction is incorrect? Select one:

a. The instrument use to regulate temperature during PCR is called a thermocycler.

b. Samples are initially heated to about 95ᵒC to denature proteins

c. The Taq polymerase is active at 72ᵒC

d. Pairing of the 3' end of primers to the DNA target is critical for elongation.

e. The nucleotide composition of primers affects their melting and annealing temperatures.

(C) What is the first basal transcription factor to bind eukaryotic promoters? Select one:

a. TFIIH b. RNA polymerase II c. CDK7 d. TFIIE e. TBP

Watch
5
answers
0
watching
27
views

For unlimited access to Homework Help, a Homework+ subscription is required.

Unlock all answers

Get 1 free homework help answer.
Get unlimited access
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Get unlimited access
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Get unlimited access
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Get unlimited access
Already have an account? Log in
Share
Lelia Lubowitz
Lelia LubowitzLv2
13 Dec 2019
Get unlimited access
Already have an account? Log in
Share

Related textbook solutions

Molecular Cell Biology
8 Edition,
Lodish
ISBN: 9781464183393
Biology: Science for Life with Physiology
6 Edition,
Belk
ISBN: 9780134555430
Biology
2nd Edition, 2013
Openstax
ISBN: 9781947172517
Concepts of Biology
OER Edition,
Openstax
ISBN: 9781938168116
Essentials of Biology
5 Edition,
Mader
ISBN: 9781259660269

Related questions

Question 1 (3 points)

Explain why you need two primers for PCR and what would happen if you did not include 2 in your reaction.

What component(s) of your PCR reaction give it specifity? In other words, what reagent will you add to your PCR reaction that will allow it to amplify a specific piece of DNA and not all DNA in general?

a. Buffer

b. dNTPs

c. Primers

d. Taq Polymerase

If you failed to input the proper annealing temperature on the thermocycler, what is the most likely outcome?

a. Taq polymerase will not actively polymerize DNA so no PCR product will be visible on a gel.

b. DNA will not denature properly so PCR will work, just not as efficiently as it should.

c. Primers will not bind to the denatured DNA so little or no PCR product will be visible on a gel.

d. DNA will be degraded so no PCR product will be visble on a gel.

1. Genomic DNA is digested with a restriction enzyme that has a 4 bp recognition (restriction) site. What would be the expected average size of the fragments that would be produced by digesting DNA of random sequence with this enzyme? A) 8 bp B) 16 bp C) 125 bp D) 256 bp E) 512 bp

2.insertion or removal of one or more nucleotide base pairs in DNA within a gene often results in a ____________ mutation. A) transition B) frameshift C) reversion D) transversion E) suppressor

3. Which ingredient is NOT required in Sanger DNA sequencing? A) Primers for DNA polymerase. B) Reverse transcriptase. C) Dideoxy nucleotides. D) Deoxy nucleotides. E) DNA template.

4. What is the purpose of Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction? a. DNA denaturation b. Primer annealing c. DNA synthesis d. Heating of the reaction e. All of the above are associated with Taq polymerase.

5.You are doing lab work with a new species of beetle. You have isolated lines that breed true for either blue shells and long antenna, or green shells and short antenna. Crossing these lines yields F1 progeny with blue shells and long antenna. Crossing F1 progeny with beetles that have green shells and short antenna yield the following progeny: Blue shell, long antenna 92 Green shell, short antenna 88 Blue shell, short antenna 31 Green shell, long antenna 29 Total 240 Assuming that the genes are linked, what is the map distance between them in cM? A) 75.0 cM B) 25.0 cM C) 12.1 cM D) 12.9 cM E) The genes are actually assorting independently. Genes A and B are linked with 10 map units (cM) between them. A heterozygous individual AB/ab (note that the dominants are in coupling) would be expected to produce gametes in which of the following frequencies?

A) 45% AA; 10% Ab; 45% bb

B) 5% AB; 45% Ab; 45% aB; 5% ab

C) 10% AB; 40% Ab; 40% aB; 10% ab

D) 45% AB; 10% Ab; 10% aB; 45% ab

E) 45% AB; 5% Ab; 5% aB; 45% ab

1. In addition to identifying the genetic material, the experiments of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty with different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that
DNA is a double helix.
DNA may be taken up by bacterial cells and be active.
DNA is present in bacteriophage T2.
eukaryotic cells may be genetically transformed.
DNA binds to the cell wall of the bacterium.
2. In order to show that DNA in cell extracts is responsible for genetic transformation in Streptococcus pneumoniae, important corroborating evidence should indicate that _______ also destroy transforming activity.
temperatures high enough to kill cells
enzymes that hydrolyze proteins
enzymes that hydrolyze DNA
enzymes that hydrolyze polysaccharides
enzymes that hydrolyze RNA
3. Based on what you have learned about the experiments conducted by Griffith and Avery and colleagues with bacteria, which of the following would result in transformation of living R cells?
Pure RNA from S cells
Cell-membrane extracts from S cells
A mixture of pure RNA and protein from S cells
Cell-free extracts from S cells
Pure protein from S cells
4. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
form three hydrogen bonds with each other.
are more heat-stable than G-C base pairs.
are of a substantially different length than G-C base pairs.
are not accessible to DNA binding proteins.
are chemically distinct from G-C base pairs.
5. If 23 percent of the bases in a sample of double-stranded DNA are adenine, what percentage of the bases are uracil?
27
50
0
73
23
6. The uniform diameter of the DNA structure provides evidence for
antiparallel DNA strands.
a right-handed helix.
a double-stranded helix.
3′ end phosphorylation.
purine–pyrimidine pairing.
7. If a sequence of one strand of DNA is 5′-TGACTATC-3′, what is the complementary strand?
5′-ACTGATAG-3′
3′-TGACTATC-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-5′
3′-ACTGATAG-3′
5′-TGACTATC-3′
8. What structural aspect of the DNA facilitates dissociation of the two DNA strands for replication?
3′ end phosphorylation
Purine–pyrimidine pairing
Antiparallel DNA strands
Covalent bonds between sugars and phosphate groups
Hydrogen bonding between paired bases
9. If the Meselson–Stahl density gradient experiment had resulted in two bands of DNA molecules after only one round of replication, one containing only 15N and the second only 14N, this result would have indicated that replication was
unidirectional.
dispersive.
conservative.
bidirectional.

semiconservative.
10. The nucleoside analogue acyclovir, which is used to treat herpes simplex virus (HSV) infections, lacks a 3′ hydroxyl group (–OH). Predict what will happen if the host cell DNA polymerase incorporates a molecule of acyclovir into an elongating strand of HSV DNA.
The replication complex will no longer bind to origins of replication.
The DNA polymerase will only incorporate acyclovir molecules.
Acyclovir will bind single-strand binding proteins.
DNA polymerase will not be able to link a successive nucleotide.
Acyclovir will block the activity of the DNA helicase.
11. Which of the following does not demonstrate the stability of the DNA double helix?
Single-strand binding proteins are required to keep the strands apart.
Paired bases form hydrogen bonds.
High temperatures are required to denature it.
DNA synthesis requires energy.
DNA helicases require ATP.
12. What effect would a primase inhibitor have on DNA replication?
DNA polymerase would not be able to add bases to the DNA.
Primase would be blocked from joining the DNA replication complex.
Primase would not be able to provide primers for DNA polymerases.
DNA polymerase would not be able to use DNA as a template.
There would be no effect on DNA replication.
13. To replicate their DNA in a timely manner, most eukaryotic chromosomes
normally have uncoiled DNA.
have multiple origins of replication.
contain linear molecules of single-stranded DNA.
have two replication forks that move in the same direction.
are composed entirely of DNA.
14. Which statement about DNA replication is false?
Okazaki fragments are synthesized as parts of the leading strand.
Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase.
The sliding clamp increases the rate of DNA synthesis.
Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes.
Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks.
15. In many eukaryotes, there are repetitive sequences called telomeres at the ends of chromosomes. After successive rounds of DNA replication, the _______ strand becomes shorter. In some cells, an enzyme called _______ repairs the shortened strand.
leading; telomerase
lagging; telomerase
lagging; DNA polymerase I
leading; DNA polymerase I
leading; replicase
16. A researcher studies normal human fibroblast cells. They can be maintained in culture but die off after about 30 cell generations. Unexpectedly, a colony of cells continues to survive and divide past 30 generations. Which scenario is most likely true for these cells?
DNA polymerase is constantly active.
Primase is able to extend the telomeres.
The mismatch repair system is extra efficient.
The telomerase gene is being expressed.
The cells do not need the ends of their chromosomes.
17. If DNA polymerase III introduces an incorrect nucleotide, what is the first corrective action made by the DNA repair system?
The replication complex excises the incorrect nucleotide.
The excision repair proteins remove the incorrect nucleotide.
The mismatch repair system scans for base-pairing mismatches.
There is no correction, because nucleotide errors by DNA polymerases are not repaired.
DNA ligase connects the correct nucleotide.
18. Choose the correct order of the following four events in the excision repair of DNA:
(1) Base-paired DNA is made complementary to the template.
(2) Damaged bases are recognized.
(3) DNA ligase seals the new strand to existing DNA.
(4) Part of a single strand is excised.
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 1, 3, 4
3, 4, 2, 1
2, 4, 1, 3
4, 2, 3, 1
19. Six complete cycles of PCR should result in a _______-fold increase in the amount of DNA.
64
32
12
128
6
20. When double-stranded DNA is heated to temperatures above 90°C, it denatures. Denaturation is a process that
breaks covalent bonds.
hydrolyzes DNA.
separates double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
causes new hydrogen bonds to form.
irreversibly destroys the double helical structure.

Weekly leaderboard

Home
Homework Help 3,900,000
Biology 460,000
Start filling in the gaps now
Log in