ADMS 2400 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6,7,8,10,11,13, &14: Punctuated Equilibrium, Virtual Team, Alarm Clock

56 views15 pages

blushferret44

16 Dec 2016

School

York University

Department

Administrative Studies

Course

ADMS 2400

Professor

Joanne Gray

For unlimited access to Textbook Notes, a Class+ subscription is required.

ADMS 2400 everything is form the book

Chapter 6

• A group is two or more people with a common relationship

• A team is a small number of people with complementary skills who are committed to a

common purpose

• Groups become teams when they meet the following conditions

1. Team members share leadership

2. Both individuals and the team share accountability for the work of the team

3. The team develops its own purpose or mission

4. The team works on problem solving continuously, rather than just at scheduled

meeting times

5. The teams easue of effetieess is the tea’s outoes ad goals, ot

individual outcomes and goals

Why have teams become so popular?

• Teams have the capability to quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband

Types of teams likely to find in an organization

• Problem-solving (or process improvement) team: a group of 5 to 12 employees form

the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving

quality, efficiency, and the work environment (they only make recommendations)

• Self-managed (or self-directed) teams: a group of 5 to 10 employees who take on many

of the responsibilities of their former managers (they act)

• cross-functional teams: a group of employees at about the same hierarchal level, but

from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task

• virtual team: a team that uses computer technology to tie together physically dispersed

members to achieve a common goal

multiteam systems

• a collection of 2 or more interdependent teams that share a superordinate goals; a team

of teams

roles

• role: a set of expected behaviours of a person in a given position in a social unit

• role expectations: how other believe a person should act in a given situation

• role conflict: a situation in which an individual finds that complying with one role

requirements may make it more difficult to comply with another

• role ambiguity: a person is unclear about his or her role

• role overload: too much is expected of someone

• role underload: too little is expected of someone, and the person feels like they are not

contributing to the group

norms

• norms: an acceptable standard of behavior within a group that are shared by the

goup’s ees

• common norms have to do with issues such as

1. performance: how hard to work, level of output, and quality of output

find more resources at oneclass.com

Unlock document

This preview shows pages 1-3 of the document.
Unlock all 15 pages and 3 million more documents.

Already have an account? Log in

ADMS 2400 everything is form the book

2. appearance: dress codes, when to look busy, when to goof off, how to show

loyalty

3. social arrangement: with whom to eat lunch, whether to for friendships on and

off the job

4. allocation of resources: pay, assignment, allocation of tools and equipment

• how norms are formed

1. explicit statement made by a group member: often instructions from the groups

supervisor or a powerful member

2. critical events in the groups history: these set important precedents

3. primacy: the first behavioral pattern that emerges in a group frequently sets

team expectations

4. carry over behaviors from past situations: group members bring expectations

with them from other groups to which they have belonged

• what makes a norm important

1. it facilitates the groups survival: goups do’t like to fail so the seek a os

that will increase their chances of success

2. it increases the preditaility of group memers’ ehaviours: they can

atiipate oe aothe’s atios ad pepae appopiate esposes

3. it reduces embarrassing interpersonal problems for group members: prevent as

much interpersonal discomfort as possible

4. it allows members to express the central values of the group and clarify what is

distinctive about the groups identity: helps solidify and maintain the group

conformity

• adjusting ones behavior to align with the norms of the group

Tuka’s 5 stage odel

• Pre-group – the first stage, characterized by much uncertainty

 Forming – members try to understand the boundaries in the team and get a feel for

what is expected of them

 Storming – oflit eeges ad affets soe elatioships as ell as has the tea’s

progress

 Norming – members realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals

and feelings of solidarity emerge

 Performing - members are comfortable working within their roles, and the team makes

progress toward goals

 Adjourning – members realize that the end of the team is near

The punctuated-equilibrium model

• Tepoa goups ith deadlies do’t follo the peious odel

– The first meeting set the groups direction

– The first phase of group activity is one of inertia

– A transition takes place exactly when the group has used up half is allotted times

– This transition initiates major changes

– A second phase of inertia follows the transition

– The groups last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity

find more resources at oneclass.com

Unlock document

This preview shows pages 1-3 of the document.
Unlock all 15 pages and 3 million more documents.

Already have an account? Log in

ADMS 2400 everything is form the book

• Phase one

– First meeting sets team direction

– Once set it becomes written in stone

– The team is incapable of acting on these new insights in phase 1

– No did their assigned task

– Performing at a relatively slow state

• Phase two

– Teams experience their transition

precisely halfway between the

first meeting and the official

deadline

– The midpoint appears to work like

an alarm clock, heightening

ee’s awareness that their

time is limited and that they need

to get moving

– In this phase the team executes

plans created during the

transition period

– The team last meeting is characterized by a final burst of activity to finish its

work

Applying the punctuated equilibrium model

• The five stage model considers the interpersonal process of the group, while the

punctuated equilibrium model considers the time challenges that the group faces

Creating effective teams

find more resources at oneclass.com

Unlock document

This preview shows pages 1-3 of the document.
Unlock all 15 pages and 3 million more documents.

Already have an account? Log in

Document Summary

Why have teams become so popular: teams have the capability to quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband. Tu(cid:272)k(cid:373)a(cid:374)"s 5 stage (cid:373)odel: pre-group the first stage, characterized by much uncertainty. Forming members try to understand the boundaries in the team and get a feel for what is expected of them. Storming (cid:272)o(cid:374)fli(cid:272)t e(cid:373)e(cid:396)ges a(cid:374)d affe(cid:272)ts so(cid:373)e (cid:396)elatio(cid:374)ships as (cid:449)ell as ha(cid:396)(cid:373)s the tea(cid:373)"s progress. Norming members realize that they need to work together to accomplish team goals and feelings of solidarity emerge. Performing - members are comfortable working within their roles, and the team makes progress toward goals. Adjourning members realize that the end of the team is near. The punctuated-equilibrium model: te(cid:373)po(cid:396)a(cid:396)(cid:455) g(cid:396)oups (cid:449)ith deadli(cid:374)es do(cid:374)"t follo(cid:449) the p(cid:396)e(cid:448)ious (cid:373)odel. The first meeting set the groups direction. The first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place exactly when the group has used up half is allotted times. A second phase of inertia follows the transition.

Related Questions

22jul15

Q1. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q2. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q3. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q4. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q5. What is the most useful role for the external leader of a self-managed group?
a. select new members of the group when they are needed
b. mediate internal conflicts and encourage cooperation
c. monitor the group to ensure it does not become a social club
d. serve as a coach, facilitator, and advocate for the group

Q6. Which is not characteristic of Bradford's group-centered leadership?
a. the leader should emphasize group maintenance behavior as much as task oriented behavior
b. the leader should encourage members to share the responsibility for performing leadership functions
c. the leader should strive to maintain a rational discussion without emotional outbursts or expression of feelings
d. the leader should allow the group to make the final choice

Q7. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q8. Which leadership function is especially important when a cross-functional team is initially formed to carry out a project?
a. planning and scheduling team activities to meet project deadlines
b. influencing outsiders to provide adequate resources, approvals, and assistance
c. articulating a vision or objective that inspires commitment by team members
d. mediating conflicts among members and helping them find integrative solutions

Q9. Which of the following is least likely to be a reason for an organization's failure to adapt to a changing environment?
a. leaders with a long-term perspective
b. highly specialized subunits
c. declining financial performance
d. institutionalization of power

Q10. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q11. What pattern of behavior is most likely for a CEO who has been in office for 3-4 years?
a. after the CEO consolidates power, he or she becomes more willing to experiment with innovative strategies
b. as the CEO gains confidence with a strategy that is working, he or she becomes more excited about gathering information to improve it
c. after the CEO selects a strategy and implements it, he or she becomes complacent and inflexible about changing it
d. after the CEO institutionalizes power, he or she becomes more willing to allow others to participate in making major decisions

Q12. Which condition does not limit a chief executive's discretion to make major changes in the strategy of an organization?
a. the organization has a few major clients who account for most sales
b. the organization has ample financial reserves
c. the culture of the organization is strong
d. the organization has a strong board of directors

Q13. When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to:
a. maintain a high level of external monitoring
b. have detailed plans and operating procedures
c. increase the power of the chief executive
d. strengthen the organization culture

Q14. When an organization has declining performance, a CEO who has been in office for several years is least likely to:
a. look for ways to improve implementation of the existing strategy
b. make small, incremental changes in the strategy
c. give a pep talk and urge people to redouble their effort
d. make major changes in the organization's strategy

Q15. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q16. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q17. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q18. What training method is most useful for improving interpersonal skills?
a. computer simulations
b. behavior role modeling
c. large scale simulations
d. analysis of short cases

Q19. Which of the following was not recommended for effective training?
a. use concrete examples, diagrams, and mnemonics in explanations
b. relate training objectives to the person's interests and career ambitions
c. integrate complex material into longer learning modules
d. allow ample opportunity for practice with feedback

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

tealbadger30

Q1. Members are most likely to experience role conflict and divided loyalties in:
a. a cross-functional project team
b. a self-managed operational team
c. a traditional work team
d. an executive team

Q2. Which of the following was not mentioned as a primary determinant of performance for a functional team?
a. how long the current leader has been in that position
b. trust and cooperation among the team members
c. the organization and coordination of activities
d. member agreement about objectives and strategies

Q3. Which is not likely to improve the effectiveness of a self-managed team?
a. let members share in financial gains from improved performance
b. change the membership frequently to give the team fresh ideas
c. provide accurate, timely information relevant to team activities
d. give members training in interpersonal and problem solving skills

Q4. Which process is most likely to occur in an after-activity review?
a. determination of responsibility for errors and mistakes
b. recognition of members for their contributions to the team
c. analysis of what was done well and what needs to be changed
d. selection of the most qualified team leader for the next activity

Q5. Which type of activity is least likely to be delegated to a self-managed team?
a. evaluating each team member's task performance
b. firing a team member who has unsatisfactory performance
c. determining the work procedures to be used by the team
d. determining which team member will carry out each task

Q6. The primary responsibility of the leader of a decision group is to:
a. suggest good ideas for solving the problem
b. ensure that everybody has equal influence
c. encourage group members to reach an agreement quickly
d. structure the discussion in a systematic manner

Q7. The primary purpose of a dialogue session is to:
a. debate competing proposals and identify the best one for the team
b. help members learn more about each other's interests and aspirations
c. encourage members to express their dissatisfaction with each other openly
d. increase understanding of implicit assumptions and mental models

Q8. What was found in research on the effectiveness of self-managed teams?
a. productivity and quality improved substantially
b. organizational commitment usually increased
c. turnover and absenteeism were lower
d. the results were inconsistent across studies

Q9. Which condition is least important for the success of a new strategy?
a. it is based on the core competencies of the organization
b. it is compatible with significant changes in the external environment
c. it has a few clear themes relevant to the shared values of the members
d. it is similar to a strategy that was previously successful

Q10. Which of the following actions by the CEO is not likely to improve the effectiveness of an executive team?
a. clearly define objectives consistent with shared values of team members
b. talk with individuals whenever possible to reduce time in meetings
c. give the team considerable discretion but specify limits of team authority
d. rely more on advice from members with the most expertise

Q11. Which statement about institutionalization in organizations is most accurate?
a. it describes how subunits with expertise gain power in organizations
b. it makes it easier for organizations to adapt to a changing environment
c. it describes how people use power to gain more power
d. it demonstrates why political tactics are unnecessary to maintain power

Q12. What is the best summary of findings in research on leadership succession?
a. chief executives have little influence on organization performance due to the overwhelming influence of economic and market conditions
b. chief executives have a strong impact on organization performance and are the primary determinant of whether the organization prospers or declines
c. chief executives have a moderate impact on organizational performance when measured over a period of several years
d. chief executives influence stock prices but have little or no influence on the firm's actual economic performance

Q13. What pattern of behavior is least likely during the first few months on the job for the new CEO in an organization that is prosperous?
a. the CEO will quickly select a new strategy and make major changes in the organization to look like a confident and dynamic leader
b. the CEO will make changes in the functional areas in which he or she has the most prior experience
c. the CEO will attempt to demonstrate some small successes in dealing with immediate problems to build a favorable image and gain more discretion
d. the CEO will gather and analyze information about the organization and environment in order to determine an appropriate strategy

Q14. Which of the following was not given as a guideline for external monitoring?
a. examine a wide range of developments and trends in the environment
b. make an extra effort to learn what clients and customers want and need
c. identify both the strengths and weaknesses of competing products
d. rely primarily on your own intuition to analyze the environment

Q15. In what situation are executive teams least likely to be useful?
a. the organization includes several business units with diverse products
b. there is intense competition among executives to become the next CEO
c. the organization has a complex and turbulent environment
d. the executives in the team have very diverse backgrounds and perspectives

Q16. Which is not a core performance determinant in the flexible leadership theory?
a. process reliability and efficiency
b. leader experience and technical skills
c. human resources and relations
d. innovation and adaptation

Q17. Research at CCL indicates that the least amount of learning occurred for managers who had:
a. assignments for which they were well prepared
b. challenges they had to face alone
c. opportunities to make mistakes
d. diverse experiences with different types of challenges

Q18. Which statement about leadership development in organizations is least likely to be accurate:
a. leadership development should be consistent with organization strategy
b. developmental activities should be coordinated with formal training
c. self development activities should be maximized to reduce costs
d. leadership development should be integrated with succession planning

Q19. Which of the following usually includes a mix of formal training and learning from experience working on management projects?
a. mentoring
b. job rotation programs
c. action learning
d. behavior modeling

Q20. Which developmental method is most useful for helping managers to understand their inner feelings and values?
a. outdoor challenge programs
b. personal growth programs
c. mentoring programs
d. multisource feedback workshops

Q21. Which approach is used most often for improving leadership?
a. multi-source feedback workshops
b. formal mentoring programs
c. job rotation programs
d. formal training programs

Q22. What two methods are most useful for improving conceptual skills?
a. case analysis and behavior role modeling
b. feedback workshops and simulations
c. simulations and case analysis
d. behavior role modeling and feedback workshops

Q23. In most feedback workshops for management development, the primary source of information about a manager's behavior is:
a. other managers in the workshop who fill out a checklist
b. observers who record the person's behavior during a simulation
c. observation of a videotape taken of the manager doing regular work
d. questionnaires filled out by people with whom the manager works

Q24. Training programs to enhance leadership skills:
a. are widely used for managers in organizations
b. are seldom used for effective managers
c. are used mostly for department supervisors
d. are used mostly for top executives in large organizations

Q25. Which is least likely to be a reason for the "glass ceiling" in large organizations?
a. differences in leadership behavior displayed by men and women
b. implicit theories about the attributes required for effective leadership
c. popular stereotypes about the skills and traits of men and women
d. less encouragement and developmental opportunities for women

graybeaver288

ADMS 2400 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6,7,8,10,11,13, &14: Punctuated Equilibrium, Virtual Team, Alarm Clock

Document Summary

Get access

Related Documents

ADMS 2400 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6: Problem Solving, Virtual Team, Role Conflict

ADMS 2400 Study Guide - Final Guide: Organizational Communication, Fiedler Contingency Model, Problem Solving

ADMS 2400 Chapter Notes - Chapter 6 and 12: Team 10, Role Conflict, Social Loafing

Related Questions